Nokea
A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who takes furosemide for hypertension. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.3 mEq/L. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Cardiac dysrhythmias
- D. Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiac dysrhythmias. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, which is a potassium deficiency. A potassium level of 3.3 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and can increase the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias due to the role potassium plays in maintaining the heart's electrical activity. Hypertension (A) is not directly related to low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (B) is the opposite of what the client is experiencing. Pulmonary edema (D) is not typically associated with low potassium levels.
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A nurse is planning care for a client who is being treated with chemotherapy and radiation for metastatic breast cancer, and who has neutropenia. The nurse should include which of the following restrictions in the client's plan of care?
- A. Fresh flowers and potted plants in the room
- B. Visitors from outside the hospital
- C. Foods high in vitamin C
- D. A humidifier in the room
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fresh flowers and potted plants in the room. Neutropenic clients are at high risk for infections due to low white blood cell count. Fresh flowers and potted plants can harbor bacteria and fungi, increasing the risk of infection. Restricting these items helps minimize exposure to pathogens. Choices B and D are incorrect as long as visitors are screened for infections and the humidifier is cleaned regularly. Choice C, foods high in vitamin C, is incorrect as these foods can actually help boost the immune system.
A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV. Which of the following laboratory values is the nurse's priority?
- A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- B. Platelet count of 350,000/mm3
- C. CD4-T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
- D. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm3
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: CD4-T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. In HIV care, monitoring the CD4-T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the immune system's ability to fight infections. A low CD4 count indicates a weakened immune system, increasing the client's susceptibility to opportunistic infections. This value guides treatment decisions, such as initiating antiretroviral therapy. The other options, while important, do not directly reflect the client's immune status in the context of HIV. Hemoglobin and platelet counts are relevant for assessing anemia and clotting function, respectively. White blood cell count is a general indicator of infection or inflammation. Prioritizing CD4-T-cell count ensures appropriate management of HIV and prevention of complications.
A nurse is teaching a client about the causes of osteoporosis. The nurse should include which of the following types of medication therapy as a risk factor for osteoporosis?
- A. Aspirin therapy
- B. Calcium supplements
- C. Estrogen therapy
- D. Thyroid hormones
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Thyroid hormones. Excessive use of thyroid hormones can lead to osteoporosis by increasing bone turnover and reducing bone mineral density. Thyroid hormones can interfere with the normal process of bone formation and resorption, leading to weakened bones. Aspirin therapy (A) is not a risk factor for osteoporosis. Calcium supplements (B) are actually recommended to prevent osteoporosis. Estrogen therapy (C) is also not a risk factor; in fact, estrogen helps to maintain bone density.
A nurse is preparing dietary instructions for a client who has episodes of biliary colic from chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
- A. Avoid foods high in fat.
- B. Avoid foods high in carbohydrates.
- C. Eat a high-protein, low-fat diet.
- D. Increase intake of high-fat foods.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in fat. Biliary colic is caused by gallstones, and high-fat foods can trigger gallbladder contractions leading to pain. Therefore, advising the client to avoid foods high in fat can help prevent biliary colic episodes. Choice B is incorrect as carbohydrates do not directly affect biliary colic. Choice C is incorrect because while a high-protein, low-fat diet may be beneficial for some conditions, it is not specifically recommended for biliary colic. Choice D is incorrect as increasing intake of high-fat foods can worsen symptoms.
A nurse is assessing a client who has fluid overload. Which of the following findings shouldn't the nurse expect?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Increased blood pressure
- C. Increased respiratory rate
- D. Increased hematocrit
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased hematocrit. In fluid overload, there is an excess of fluid in the body, leading to dilution of blood components including hematocrit. Therefore, an increased hematocrit would not be expected. Increased heart rate (A), blood pressure (B), and respiratory rate (C) are all common findings in fluid overload due to the body's compensatory mechanisms to maintain adequate perfusion. Thus, these findings are expected.