Nokea
A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who takes furosemide for hypertension. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.3 mEq/L. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Cardiac dysrhythmias
- D. Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cardiac dysrhythmias. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, which is a potassium deficiency. A potassium level of 3.3 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and can increase the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias due to the role potassium plays in maintaining the heart's electrical activity. Hypertension (A) is not directly related to low potassium levels. Hyperkalemia (B) is the opposite of what the client is experiencing. Pulmonary edema (D) is not typically associated with low potassium levels.
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A nurse is admitting a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Pantoprazole 80 mg IV bolus twice daily
- B. Furosemide 40 mg IV
- C. Lactulose 20 mg PO
- D. Acetaminophen 650 mg PO
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pantoprazole 80 mg IV bolus twice daily. In acute pancreatitis, gastric acid hypersecretion can occur, leading to exacerbation of pancreatic inflammation. Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that helps reduce gastric acid secretion, which can alleviate pancreatic irritation. IV administration ensures rapid onset of action.
B: Furosemide is a diuretic used for conditions like heart failure or edema, not indicated for acute pancreatitis.
C: Lactulose is a laxative used for hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia levels, not indicated for acute pancreatitis.
D: Acetaminophen is a pain reliever, but it does not address the underlying cause of acute pancreatitis.
A nurse is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses on effective techniques for counseling clients about sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Ask about the client's exposure to any past or present STIs.
- B. Advise clients not to disclose their sexual history.
- C. Focus only on present symptoms of STIs.
- D. Only ask about high-risk behavior.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because asking about the client's exposure to any past or present STIs is crucial for effective counseling. Understanding the client's history helps in assessing risk factors, determining appropriate interventions, and providing tailored education. It also promotes trust and open communication.
Choice B is incorrect as advising clients not to disclose their sexual history hinders the nurse's ability to provide comprehensive care and support. Choice C is incorrect because focusing only on present symptoms may overlook important information needed for proper assessment and management. Choice D is incorrect as only asking about high-risk behavior limits the scope of the assessment and may miss potential risk factors.
A nurse is teaching a class about preventive care to clients who are at risk for acquiring viral hepatitis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the presentation?
- A. Avoid foods prepared with tap water.
- B. Use purified water for drinking.
- C. Limit intake of fried foods.
- D. Get vaccinated for hepatitis C.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods prepared with tap water. Tap water in certain regions may be contaminated with hepatitis-causing viruses. Using bottled or purified water for drinking alone (choice B) may not prevent exposure through food preparation. Limiting fried foods (choice C) is unrelated to preventing viral hepatitis. While getting vaccinated for hepatitis C (choice D) is important, it is not directly related to preventing exposure through contaminated tap water. Therefore, the most effective preventive measure is to avoid foods prepared with tap water to reduce the risk of acquiring viral hepatitis.
During a routine physical examination, a nurse observes a 1-cm (0.4-in) lesion on a client's chest. The lesion is raised and flesh-colored with pearly white borders. The nurse should recognize that this finding is suggestive of which of the following types of skin cancer?
- A. Melanoma
- B. Squamous cell carcinoma
- C. Basal cell carcinoma
- D. Kaposi's sarcoma
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Basal cell carcinoma. Basal cell carcinoma typically presents as a raised, flesh-colored lesion with pearly white borders. This type of skin cancer is the most common and is usually slow-growing with low metastatic potential. It is often found on sun-exposed areas such as the face, neck, and chest. Melanoma (A) is characterized by asymmetry, irregular borders, varied color, and a diameter larger than 6mm. Squamous cell carcinoma (B) is usually a firm, red nodule or a flat lesion with a scaly crust. Kaposi's sarcoma (D) typically presents as purple or blue-black patches or nodules on the skin.
A nurse is planning an educational program about basal cell carcinoma. Which of the following information should the nurse plan to include?
- A. Basal cell carcinoma has a low incidence of metastasis.
- B. Basal cell carcinoma is often fatal.
- C. Basal cell carcinoma metastasizes early.
- D. Basal cell carcinoma is more common in younger clients.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Basal cell carcinoma has a low incidence of metastasis. Basal cell carcinoma rarely metastasizes to other parts of the body, making it highly curable through surgical excision. This information is crucial for patients to understand the low likelihood of the cancer spreading. Choices B and C are incorrect because basal cell carcinoma is not typically fatal nor does it metastasize early. Choice D is incorrect as basal cell carcinoma is more common in older adults, not younger clients.