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A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who is overusing prescribed diuretics and has a sodium level of 127 mEq/L. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Low urine specific gravity
- B. High urine specific gravity
- C. Elevated potassium levels
- D. Decreased potassium levels
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Low urine specific gravity. Excessive diuretic use can lead to volume depletion and low sodium levels. Low sodium levels cause the kidneys to excrete more water, resulting in dilute urine with low specific gravity. High urine specific gravity would indicate concentrated urine, which is not expected in this situation. Elevated potassium levels (choice C) are not typically associated with overuse of diuretics, as diuretics can actually lead to potassium loss. Similarly, decreased potassium levels (choice D) are commonly seen with diuretic use due to increased excretion of potassium by the kidneys.
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A nurse is providing teaching to a client about strategies to manage menopausal symptoms. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Use water-based lubricant during intercourse to reduce discomfort.
- B. Take estrogen supplements without consulting a provider.
- C. Limit calcium intake to reduce bloating.
- D. Avoid all physical activity to conserve energy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use water-based lubricant during intercourse to reduce discomfort. This instruction is important for managing menopausal symptoms like vaginal dryness and discomfort during intercourse. Water-based lubricants can help alleviate these symptoms. Option B is incorrect as taking estrogen supplements without consulting a provider can have risks and side effects. Option C is incorrect because limiting calcium intake is not recommended during menopause, as calcium is important for bone health. Option D is incorrect as avoiding physical activity can worsen menopausal symptoms and impact overall health.
A nurse is caring for a client who has acute kidney injury and a potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following ECG changes should the nurse expect?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. Peaked T waves
- C. Prolonged PR interval
- D. ST segment depression
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peaked T waves. In hyperkalemia (high potassium level), the myocardium becomes more excitable, leading to changes in the ECG. Peaked T waves are a classic sign of hyperkalemia, indicating early stages of cardiac involvement. Flattened T waves (choice A) are associated with hypokalemia. Prolonged PR interval (choice C) and ST segment depression (choice D) are not typically seen in hyperkalemia.
A nurse is monitoring a client who has a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of Cushings triad?
- A. Increase in blood pressure from 130/80 mm Hg to 180/100 mm Hg
- B. Decrease in heart rate to 120 bpm
- C. Rapid shallow respirations
- D. Hypotension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase in blood pressure from 130/80 mm Hg to 180/100 mm Hg. Cushing's triad is a classic sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP), seen in traumatic brain injury. It consists of hypertension (elevated blood pressure), bradycardia (not tachycardia), and irregular respirations (not rapid shallow respirations). The increase in blood pressure is due to the body's attempt to maintain cerebral perfusion in response to the increased ICP. The other choices are incorrect because they do not align with the classic presentation of Cushing's triad in traumatic brain injury.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving vancomycin intermittent IV bolus therapy for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following findings is an indication to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. The client reports ringing in the ears.
- B. The client is becoming flushed.
- C. The client reports increased thirst.
- D. The client has a decreased urine output.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The client is becoming flushed. Flushing is a common adverse effect of vancomycin, indicating a possible allergic reaction or infusion reaction. Flushing can be a sign of red man syndrome, a severe reaction to vancomycin. The nurse should monitor closely and report this finding to the healthcare provider.
Incorrect Answer Rationale:
A: The client reports ringing in the ears - this is a potential adverse effect of vancomycin, but not as critical as flushing.
C: The client reports increased thirst - this is not typically associated with vancomycin adverse effects.
D: The client has a decreased urine output - this may indicate nephrotoxicity, a known side effect of vancomycin, but flushing is more indicative of an immediate adverse reaction.
A nurse is assessing a group of clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse make a referral to palliative care?
- A. A client receiving chemotherapy for early-stage breast cancer.
- B. A client whose medications to manage Parkinsons disease are no longer effective.
- C. A client recovering from a total knee replacement.
- D. A client with seasonal allergies needing symptom relief.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client with Parkinson's disease whose medications are no longer effective may benefit from the specialized care and symptom management provided by palliative care. Palliative care focuses on improving quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses by addressing physical, emotional, and spiritual needs. Referral is appropriate when symptoms are not adequately controlled. Choices A, C, and D do not require palliative care as they involve routine treatments or procedures that do not necessarily indicate the need for specialized palliative services.