Nokea
A nurse in the ambulatory surgery center is providing discharge teaching to a client who had a dilation and curettage (D&C) following a spontaneous miscarriage. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?
- A. Vaginal intercourse can be resumed after 2 weeks.
- B. Products of conception will be present in vaginal bleeding.
- C. Increased intake of zinc-rich foods is recommended.
- D. Aspirin may be taken for cramps.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Following a dilation and curettage (D&C) procedure for a miscarriage, it is important to inform the client that they may experience vaginal bleeding containing products of conception. This is a normal part of the recovery process after this type of procedure. The presence of these products of conception in the vaginal bleeding should be monitored and reported to the healthcare provider if there are any unusual symptoms or excessive bleeding. It is essential for the nurse to provide appropriate information and guidance to the client about what to expect post-procedure to ensure they can differentiate between normal and abnormal symptoms.
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A nurse is reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client. The nurse should identify that which of the following factors paces the client at risk for infection.
- A. Meconium "“ start fluid
- B. Placenta previa
- C. Midline episiotomy
- D. Gestational hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A midline episiotomy increases the risk for infection in postpartum clients due to the incision made in the perineum during childbirth. This incision can serve as a portal of entry for microorganisms, leading to an increased risk of infection. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (choice A) can increase the risk of respiratory distress in the newborn but is not directly related to infection in the postpartum client. Placenta previa (choice B) is a condition during pregnancy where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, which poses risks related to bleeding rather than infection postpartum. Gestational hypertension (choice D) is a risk factor for developing preeclampsia or eclampsia during pregnancy but does not directly increase the risk of infection in the postpartum period.
A nurse educator is teaching a class to nursing developing cervical cancer. Which client is at students about the incidence of sexually transmitted highest risk? infections (STIs) and their impact on public health.
- A. Client with a Pap test and an HPV screen positive Which is the most commonly reported STI in the for type 12 United States?
- B. Client who is 40 years old and stopped smoking
- C. Syphilis
- D. Gonorrhea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Human papillomavirus (HPV) is the most commonly reported sexually transmitted infection (STI) in the United States. HPV infection, especially high-risk types such as HPV-16, is strongly associated with cervical cancer. Therefore, a client who is positive for HPV type 16 on an HPV screen is at the highest risk for developing cervical cancer among the given choices. The nurse educator would need to emphasize the importance of regular screening, follow-up, and prevention strategies for this client to reduce the risk of cervical cancer development.
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of birth control pills?
- A. They block sperm from reaching the egg.
- B. They prevent ovulation by suppressing hormone levels.
- C. They increase cervical mucus production to block sperm entry.
- D. They reduce the size of the ovaries and fallopian tubes to prevent pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Birth control pills primarily work by preventing ovulation, thereby inhibiting the release of eggs for fertilization. Choice A is incorrect because birth control pills do not directly block sperm; they prevent ovulation. Choice C is partially correct but is not the main mechanism, as the primary function is to prevent ovulation. Choice D is incorrect because birth control pills do not alter the size of reproductive organs.
The patient's family history includes sickle cell disease. The patient's partner also has sickle cell disease in the family history. What type of test should the nurse discuss with the couple due to their family history?
- A. carrier screening for both parents
- B. ultrasound at 6 weeks’ gestation
- C. glucose screening for both parents
- D. thyroid testing
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The nurse is caring for a client pregnant with twins. Which statement indicates that the client needs additional information?
- A. Because both of my twins are boys, I know that they are identical.
- B. If my twins came from one fertilized egg that split, they are identical.
- C. If I have one boy and one girl, I will know they came from two eggs.
- D. It is rare for both twins to be within the same amniotic sac.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The statement 'Because both of my twins are boys, I know that they are identical' is incorrect because twins can be fraternal and of the same sex. Identical twins result from one fertilized egg splitting, while fraternal twins result from two separate fertilized eggs.