Nokea
A nurse is admitting a client who has arthritic pain and reports taking ibuprofen several times daily for 3 years. Which of the following tests should the nurse monitor?
- A. Serum calcium
- B. Stool for occult blood
- C. Fasting blood glucose
- D. Urine for white blood cells
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stool for occult blood. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, leading to occult blood in the stool. Monitoring stool for occult blood helps in detecting any gastrointestinal bleeding early. Serum calcium (A) is not typically affected by long-term ibuprofen use. Fasting blood glucose (C) is not directly related to ibuprofen use. Urine for white blood cells (D) is not relevant in this scenario.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse on an intensive care unit is planning care for a client who has increased intracranial pressure following a head injury. Which of the following IV medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Propranolol
- B. Dobutamine
- C. Mannitol
- D. Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce intracranial pressure by drawing fluid out of brain tissues. It is commonly used in the management of increased intracranial pressure in clients with head injuries. Propranolol (A) is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and anxiety, not for reducing intracranial pressure. Dobutamine (B) is a beta-1 agonist used for cardiac support, not for managing intracranial pressure. Chlorpromazine (D) is an antipsychotic medication and is not indicated for reducing intracranial pressure.
A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of the femur. Which of the following assessments should be the nurse's priority?
- A. Neurovascular assessment
- B. Braden scale
- C. Pain assessment
- D. Morse Fall Risk scale
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neurovascular assessment. This is the priority because the client is postoperative following ORIF of the femur, which puts them at risk for impaired circulation and nerve damage. The nurse needs to assess for signs of compromised blood flow or nerve function, such as changes in sensation, color, temperature, or pulse in the affected limb. If left unaddressed, neurovascular complications can lead to serious consequences like compartment syndrome or permanent damage. The other options are not the priority in this situation: B (Braden scale) assesses risk for pressure ulcers, C (Pain assessment) is important but not the priority over neurovascular status, and D (Morse Fall Risk scale) assesses fall risk which is important but not the priority immediately post-ORIF.
A nurse is caring for a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus. During assessment, which of the following should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Joint inflammation
- B. Bull's eye lesion
- C. Esophagitis
- D. Tophi
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Joint inflammation. Systemic lupus erythematosus commonly affects the joints, leading to inflammation and pain. This is known as lupus arthritis. Other choices are incorrect: B (Bull's eye lesion) is associated with Lyme disease, C (Esophagitis) is inflammation of the esophagus which is not a common manifestation of lupus, and D (Tophi) are uric acid crystal deposits seen in gout, not lupus.
A nurse is caring for a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Pedal edema
- B. Enlarged liver
- C. Dyspnea
- D. Neck vein distention
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dyspnea. Left-sided heart failure typically results in pulmonary congestion, leading to symptoms like dyspnea due to fluid accumulation in the lungs. Pedal edema (A) is more common in right-sided heart failure. Enlarged liver (B) is a sign of right-sided heart failure as well. Neck vein distention (D) is indicative of right-sided heart failure due to increased right atrial pressure. The focus in left-sided heart failure is on pulmonary symptoms, making dyspnea the most relevant manifestation.
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking telmisartan. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings indicates that the medication has been effective?
- A. Blood glucose of 110 mg/dL
- B. Decrease in blood pressure
- C. Increase in urinary output
- D. Respiratory rate of 16/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decrease in blood pressure. Telmisartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker used to treat hypertension. A decrease in blood pressure indicates that the medication is effective in controlling hypertension. This is the desired outcome of telmisartan therapy as it helps reduce the risk of cardiovascular events. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to the effectiveness of telmisartan. Blood glucose level and urinary output are not typically influenced by telmisartan, and respiratory rate is not a primary indicator of its effectiveness. Therefore, the most appropriate indicator of telmisartan's effectiveness in this scenario is a decrease in blood pressure.