A nurse is assessing a child with kwashiorkor disease. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Thin wasted extremities with a prominent abdomen
- B. Constipation
- C. Elevated hemoglobin
- D. High levels of protein
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe acute malnutrition characterized by a deficiency in protein intake, leading to a protein-energy malnutrition. One of the hallmark signs of kwashiorkor is an enlarged, protruding abdomen due to fluid retention in the tissues (edema), giving the appearance of a swollen belly. Additionally, individuals with kwashiorkor often have thin, wasted extremities while their abdomen appears disproportionately distended. This is known as the "big belly, skinny limbs" presentation, which arises due to the imbalance of protein and energy intake. Therefore, the nurse assessing a child with kwashiorkor should expect to find thin wasted extremities with a prominent abdomen.
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A client in a late stage of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) shows signs of AIDS-related dementia. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority?
- A. Self-care deficient: Bathing/hygiene
- B. Dysfunctional grieving
- C. Ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion
- D. Risk for injury
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nursing diagnosis that takes the highest priority for a client in a late stage of AIDS with signs of AIDS-related dementia is Ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion. This diagnosis is prioritized because AIDS-related dementia is associated with changes in brain function due to HIV affecting the brain tissues. Ensuring adequate cerebral perfusion is crucial to maintaining brain function and preventing further deterioration. Monitoring and addressing any factors that could affect cerebral perfusion, such as blood pressure, oxygenation, and circulation, are essential in managing this condition. Other nursing diagnoses are also important, but addressing ineffective cerebral tissue perfusion should be the highest priority in this situation to prevent further complications related to neurological function.
A client's IV fluid orders for 24 hour's are 1500 ml D5W followed by 1250 ml of NS. The IV tubing has a drop factor of 15 gtt/ml. To administer the required fluids the nurse should set the drip rate at;
- A. 13 gtt/min
- B. 29 gtt/min
- C. 16 gtt/min
- D. 32 gtt/min Situation 5: Protection of self and patient can be done by supporting the body's immunity.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. The nurse explains that these medications are only effective if the client:
- A. prefers to take insulin orally.
- B. has type 1diabetes.
- C. has type 2 diabetes.
- D. is pregnant and has type 2 diabet
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Oral antidiabetic agents are medications designed specifically for the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by improving insulin sensitivity, increasing insulin production, or reducing glucose production in the liver. Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by an absolute deficiency of insulin production, requiring lifelong insulin therapy. Therefore, oral antidiabetic agents are not effective for individuals with type 1 diabetes like the client in this scenario.
Mrs. Adams is scheduled for an intravemous pyelogram (IVP). Nurse Aura wpould be most concerned if the patient makes which of the following comments or statements?
- A. "I take Senokot (laxative) daily."
- B. "I often feel like my bladder is full even after voiding."
- C. "My whole face turns red when I eat mussels."
- D. "I experience headaches every 2 weeks."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nurse Aura would be most concerned about the patient's statement regarding taking Senokot daily because laxatives can affect kidney function and urine production, which are important considerations during an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Laxatives can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, which may affect the results and safety of the IVP procedure. It is crucial for the patient to disclose any medications or substances they are taking that could impact kidney function or urine production prior to undergoing the IVP. The other statements are not directly related to the IVP procedure or potential complications.
The bronchospasm and dyspnea are clinical manifestation of organophosphorus poisoning are caused by :
- A. muscarinic action
- B. nicotinic action
- C. CNS action
- D. all the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The bronchospasm and dyspnea seen in organophosphorus poisoning are primarily caused by the muscarinic action of the toxic substance. Organophosphates inhibit acetylcholinesterase, leading to an excess of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junctions. This results in overstimulation of muscarinic receptors, causing symptoms such as bronchoconstriction, increased secretions, and respiratory distress. Nicotinic actions primarily lead to muscle weakness and paralysis, while CNS actions can cause seizures and altered mental status. So, in the case of bronchospasm and dyspnea, the muscarinic action is the main contributing factor.
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