Nokea
A nurse is assessing a client after administering a second dose of cefazolin IV. The nurse notes the client has anxiety, hypotension, and dyspneWhich of the following medications should the nurse administer first?
- A. Diphenhydramine
- B. Albuterol inhaler
- C. Epinephrine
- D. Prednisone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Epinephrine. When a client exhibits symptoms of anxiety, hypotension, and dyspnea after receiving cefazolin IV, it indicates a severe allergic reaction/anaphylaxis. Epinephrine is the first-line medication for anaphylaxis as it acts quickly to reverse the symptoms by constricting blood vessels, increasing blood pressure, and opening airways. Diphenhydramine (A) is an antihistamine that can be given as a second-line treatment. Albuterol inhaler (B) is used for bronchospasm but is not the first choice in anaphylaxis. Prednisone (D) is a corticosteroid that may be used later for inflammation but is not the initial treatment for anaphylaxis.
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A nurse is teaching a client about the prescribed medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication? Select all that apply.
- A. The medication can cause nausea
- B. so take with a meal.
- C. You can experience vivid nightmares.
- D. You may notice your urine becomes lighter in color.
- E. Consumption of a high-protein meal can reduce the effectiveness of the medication.
- F. You may initially notice an increase in involuntary movements.
- G. This medication can make you light-headed if you stand up too quickly from a seated or lying position.
Correct Answer: A, B, E,F
Rationale: The correct statements to include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication are A, B, E, and F. Statement A is important to mention as it informs the client about a potential side effect (nausea) of the medication. Statement B is crucial as taking the medication with a meal can help reduce the likelihood of nausea occurring. Statement E is relevant because high-protein meals can indeed interfere with the medication's effectiveness, so the client should be aware of this. Statement F is crucial as it prepares the client for a possible side effect of an increase in involuntary movements. These statements are important for the client to understand to ensure safe and effective medication use. Statements C, D, and G are incorrect as they do not pertain to the medication's side effects, interactions, or administration, making them irrelevant in this context.
A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Administer the medication outside the 5 cm (2 in) radius of the umbilicus.
- B. Aspirate for blood return before injecting.
- C. Rub vigorously after the injection to promote absorption.
- D. Place a pressure dressing on the injection site to prevent bleeding.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer the medication outside the 5 cm (2 in) radius of the umbilicus. This is because injecting heparin near the umbilicus can lead to bruising or hematoma formation. Subcutaneous injections are generally given in the fatty tissue of the abdomen, but it is important to avoid the area around the umbilicus to prevent discomfort and complications. Aspiration for blood return (B) is not necessary for subcutaneous injections as they are not typically administered into a blood vessel. Rubbing vigorously after the injection (C) is not recommended as it can cause tissue damage. Placing a pressure dressing on the injection site (D) is also unnecessary for subcutaneous injections.
For which of the following client outcomes should the nurse administer chlordiazepoxide to a client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Minimize diaphoresis
- B. Maintain abstinence
- C. Lessen craving
- D. Prevent delirium tremens
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prevent delirium tremens. Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine used to manage acute alcohol withdrawal symptoms, including preventing delirium tremens, a severe and potentially life-threatening complication. It helps to stabilize the client's central nervous system by reducing the risk of seizures and severe agitation associated with delirium tremens. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as chlordiazepoxide's primary role in alcohol withdrawal is not to minimize diaphoresis, maintain abstinence, or lessen craving, but rather to manage the more serious symptoms of withdrawal like delirium tremens.
Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 90 seconds (normal range 30-40 sec)
- B. A client who has a prescription for heparin and an aPTT of 65 seconds (normal range 30-40 sec)
- C. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 3.0 (normal range 0.8-1.1)
- D. A client who has a prescription for warfarin and an INR of 2.0 (normal range 0.8-1.1)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the normal range of 30-40 sec, indicating the client is at risk for bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation with heparin. This result should be reported to the provider immediately for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the heparin dose to prevent bleeding complications. Choices B, C, and D all fall within the normal range for their respective medications, so they do not require immediate reporting.
Which of the following information should the nurse manager include in the in-service about pain management with opioids for clients who have cancer?
- A. IM administration is recommended if PO opioids are ineffective
- B. Respiratory depression decreases as opioid tolerance develops
- C. Meperidine is the opioid of choice for treating chronic pain
- D. Withhold PRN pain medication for the client who is receiving opioids every 6 hr
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Respiratory depression is a potential side effect of opioids. Tolerance to this effect develops with prolonged opioid use, reducing the risk over time. This information is crucial for nurses managing cancer pain with opioids to ensure patient safety.
Incorrect Choices:
A: IM administration is not necessarily recommended if PO opioids are ineffective as this can lead to delayed pain relief and potential complications.
C: Meperidine is not the opioid of choice for treating chronic pain due to its toxic metabolite accumulation and increased risk of side effects.
D: Withholding PRN pain medication for clients on scheduled opioids can result in inadequate pain control and compromised quality of life.