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A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a negative symptom?
- A. Delusions
- B. Hallucinations
- C. Social withdrawal
- D. Agitation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Social withdrawal. Negative symptoms in schizophrenia involve a decrease or absence of normal functions. Social withdrawal is a classic negative symptom, as it reflects a reduction in social interactions and interest. Delusions (A) and hallucinations (B) are positive symptoms, characterized by the presence of abnormal behaviors. Agitation (D) is associated with agitation and restlessness, not with negative symptoms. In summary, social withdrawal is the correct answer because it aligns with the definition of negative symptoms in schizophrenia.
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A nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department who states she was beaten and sexually assaulted by her partner. After a rapid assessment, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take next?
- A. Conduct a pregnancy test
- B. Request mental health consultation for the client
- C. Provide a trained advocate to stay with the client
- D. Offer prophylactic medication to prevent STI’s
- E. A client who describes having persistent feelings of anger about the hurricane.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Conduct a pregnancy test. This action is important to assess the client's risk of pregnancy resulting from the sexual assault. Pregnancy testing is crucial for timely decision-making regarding emergency contraception. This step is a priority in the care of a sexual assault survivor. It ensures appropriate medical intervention and support for the client's physical and emotional well-being.
Summary of other choices:
B: Requesting mental health consultation is important but not the immediate next step.
C: Providing a trained advocate is valuable for support but does not address the urgent medical needs of the client.
D: Offering prophylactic medication for STIs is important but not the immediate next step before assessing pregnancy risk.
E: This choice is unrelated to the situation described and should not be considered in this context.
A nurse in an inpatient mental health facility is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is taking haloperidol. Which of the following clinical findings is the nurse’s priority?
- A. High fever
- B. Insomnia
- C. Urinary hesitancy
- D. Headache
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: High fever. The priority finding is high fever because it could indicate a potentially serious adverse reaction called neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) associated with haloperidol use. NMS is a life-threatening condition characterized by fever, altered mental status, muscle rigidity, and autonomic dysfunction. Prompt recognition and treatment of NMS are crucial to prevent complications. Insomnia (B), urinary hesitancy (C), and headache (D) are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as urgent as high fever, which could signify a medical emergency.
A nurse is planning care for a client with acute delirium. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Reinforce the clients orientation with the calendar
- B. Refute the clients perception of visual hallucinations
- C. Teach the client assertive techniques
- D. Assign the client to a different caregiver each shift
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reinforce the client's orientation with the calendar. This is because in acute delirium, the client may experience confusion and disorientation. Using a calendar can help provide structure and aid in orientation. Choice B is incorrect as refuting hallucinations may worsen the client's agitation. Choice C is incorrect as assertive techniques are not typically used in managing acute delirium. Choice D is incorrect as consistency in caregivers is important for continuity of care in delirium management.
A nursing is advising an assistive personnel (AP) on the care of a client who has major depressive disorder. The AP states that he is irritated by the client’s depression. Which of the following statements by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Please don’t take what the client said seriously when she is depressed
- B. It’s important that the client feel safe verbalizing how she is feeling
- C. Everybody feels that way about this client so don’t worry about it
- D. I’ll change your assignment to someone who doesn’t have depressive disorder
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Changing the AP's assignment is appropriate because it addresses the issue of the AP's irritation towards the client's depression. It ensures the client's care is not compromised and maintains a supportive environment. This action also prevents negative attitudes from affecting the client's well-being.
Summary of other choices:
A: Incorrect. Minimizing the client's feelings is inappropriate and may invalidate their experiences.
B: Incorrect. While it is important for the client to verbalize feelings, the focus here is on addressing the AP's behavior.
C: Incorrect. Dismissing the AP's feelings and normalizing negative attitudes are not appropriate responses.
E, F, G: Not provided, but based on the context, they are likely to be irrelevant or inappropriate responses.
A nurse is preparing to administer chlorpromazine hydrochloride 25 mg PO to an older adult client. Available is chlorpromazine hydrochloride syrup 10 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
- A. 12.5
- B. 10
- C. 15
- D. 5
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 12.5 mL. To calculate this, we first determine the total amount needed, which is 25 mg. Then, we use the concentration of the syrup, which is 10 mg/5 mL. By setting up a proportion (25 mg = x mL), we can cross multiply to find x, which equals 12.5 mL. Choice B (10 mL) is incorrect because it does not provide the full 25 mg dose. Choices C (15 mL) and D (5 mL) are incorrect as they do not align with the calculated dose based on the concentration of the syrup.