Nokea
A nurse is assessing a client who has skeletal traction for a femoral fracture. The nurse notes that the weights are resting on the floor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Remove one of the weights.
- B. Tie knots in the ropes near the pulleys to shorten them.
- C. Increase the elevation of the affected extremity.
- D. Reapply the weights to ensure proper traction.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to reapply the weights to ensure proper traction. This is crucial to maintain the intended pulling force required for the skeletal traction to be effective in realigning the fractured bone. If the weights are resting on the floor, it means that the traction is not being applied as intended, which can lead to ineffective treatment and potential complications. Removing a weight (choice A) would decrease the traction force, tying knots in the ropes (choice B) would alter the mechanics of the system, and increasing the elevation of the extremity (choice C) would not address the issue of weights resting on the floor. Therefore, the best course of action is to reapply the weights to ensure proper traction and alignment of the fractured bone.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. Crackles
- B. Decreased urine output
- C. Daytime oliguria
- D. Halo vision
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Crackles. Left-sided heart failure causes fluid buildup in the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion. Crackles are indicative of fluid in the alveoli, a common sign of pulmonary edema in heart failure. Decreased urine output (B), daytime oliguria (C), and halo vision (D) are not specific to left-sided heart failure. Decreased urine output and oliguria are more associated with kidney dysfunction, while halo vision is related to eye conditions like cataracts.
A nurse is caring for a client who has acute angina. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Measure blood pressure.
- B. Administer aspirin.
- C. Administer nitroglycerin.
- D. Initiate IV access.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer aspirin. Aspirin helps to reduce platelet aggregation and prevent further clot formation in clients with acute angina, thus reducing the risk of myocardial infarction. Administering aspirin should be the first action as it addresses the immediate risk of clot formation and helps improve blood flow to the heart muscle.
Measuring blood pressure (A) can be important but is not the priority in this situation. Administering nitroglycerin (C) is important for symptom relief but does not address the underlying cause. Initiating IV access (D) may be necessary later for further interventions, but it is not the first priority.
A nurse in the emergency department is managing the care of a client who has an electrical shock injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Obtain an ECG.
- B. Administer an opioid pain medication.
- C. Infuse IV fluids to maintain urine output at 75 mL/hr.
- D. Change dressings over the entrance and exit wounds.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain an ECG. The first step in managing a client with an electrical shock injury is to assess for any cardiac complications, as electrical shock can cause arrhythmias. Obtaining an ECG will help the nurse identify any abnormal heart rhythms and determine the need for immediate intervention. Administering opioid pain medication (B) is not a priority as assessing the cardiac status takes precedence. Infusing IV fluids (C) is important but not the first priority. Changing dressings (D) can wait until the client's immediate medical needs are addressed.
A nurse is assessing a client who is taking telmisartan. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings indicates that the medication has been effective?
- A. Blood glucose of 110 mg/dL
- B. Decrease in blood pressure
- C. Increase in urinary output
- D. Respiratory rate of 10/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decrease in blood pressure. Telmisartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker used to treat hypertension by lowering blood pressure. Therefore, a decrease in blood pressure would indicate that the medication has been effective. Choice A, blood glucose of 110 mg/dL, is unrelated to the action of telmisartan. Choice C, increase in urinary output, is not a direct effect of telmisartan. Choice D, respiratory rate of 10/min, is not a typical indicator of the effectiveness of telmisartan in managing hypertension.
A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from surgery with an external fixator to the left tibia. Which of the following assessment findings requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. The client's capillary refill in the left toe is 6 seconds.
- B. The client has 100 mL blood in the closed-suction drain.
- C. The client has an oral temperature of 36.3° C (90.9° F).
- D. The client reports a pain level of 7 on a scale from 0 to 10 at the operative site.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Capillary refill time of 6 seconds in the toe indicates poor circulation, which is a concerning finding post-surgery with an external fixator. Immediate intervention is needed to prevent complications like tissue ischemia. Choices B, C, and D do not require immediate intervention as they are within normal limits postoperatively. Blood in the drain is expected, the temperature is normal, and pain level 7 is manageable with appropriate pain management.