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A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hr postpartum following a vaginal birth. The nurse notes that the client has excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Massage the client's fundus.
- B. Administer oxytocin to the client.
- C. Empty the client’s bladder.
- D. Provide oxygen to the client via nonrebreather face mask.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to massage the client's fundus. This is because excessive vaginal bleeding postpartum can indicate uterine atony, which is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. By massaging the fundus, the nurse can help the uterus contract and prevent further bleeding. This intervention is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Administering oxytocin (choice B) can help with uterine contractions, but massaging the fundus should be done first. Emptying the client's bladder (choice C) is important to prevent uterine atony, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Providing oxygen (choice D) is not directly related to managing postpartum bleeding and should not be the first action.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and is being tested for group B streptococcus ß-hemolytic (GBS). The client is multigravida and multipara with no history of GBS. She asks the nurse why the test was not conducted earlier in her pregnancy. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. You didn't report any symptoms of GBS during your pregnancy.'
- B. Your previous deliveries were all negative for GBS.'
- C. There was no indication of GBS in your earlier prenatal testing.'
- D. We need to know if you are positive for GBS at the time of delivery.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: We need to know if you are positive for GBS at the time of delivery. This is the most appropriate response because GBS status can change throughout pregnancy, and the risk of transmitting GBS to the newborn is highest during delivery. Testing closer to the due date ensures the most accurate results.
A: Incorrect. GBS may not present with symptoms, so relying on symptoms alone is not a reliable method for testing.
B: Incorrect. Previous negative results do not guarantee current status, as GBS status can change.
C: Incorrect. Lack of indication in earlier prenatal testing does not rule out GBS at the time of delivery.
E, F, G: Not provided, but unnecessary as the correct answer has been identified.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor with a fetus in the occipitoposterior position. The nurse assists the client into a hands-and-knees position. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to evaluate the effectiveness of this intervention?
- A. Does that lessen your suprapubic pain?
- B. Are you feeling relief from your pelvic pressure?
- C. Do your contractions feel further apart?
- D. Has your back labor improved?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is D. In the occipitoposterior position, the fetus's head is pressing against the mother's sacrum, causing intense back pain known as back labor. By asking if the back labor has improved, the nurse can assess if the hands-and-knees position has helped relieve the pressure on the mother's sacrum, indicating effectiveness.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Suprapubic pain is not directly related to the occipitoposterior position or the hands-and-knees position.
B: Pelvic pressure may not necessarily be alleviated by changing positions in occipitoposterior position.
C: Contractions feeling further apart may not directly correlate with the effectiveness of the hands-and-knees position for back labor relief.
A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 hr postpartum and has peripartum cardiomyopathy. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Obtain a prescription for misoprostol.
- B. Assess blood pressure twice daily.
- C. Restrict daily oral fluid intake.
- D. Administer an IV bolus of lactated Ringer's.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess blood pressure twice daily. This is crucial as peripartum cardiomyopathy can lead to heart failure and hypertension, affecting the client's blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure twice daily allows for early detection of any changes and timely intervention. Obtaining a prescription for misoprostol (A) is not indicated as it is used for preventing gastric ulcers, not related to peripartum cardiomyopathy. Restricting oral fluid intake (C) may worsen the client's condition as adequate hydration is important for cardiac function. Administering an IV bolus of lactated Ringer's (D) could potentially worsen fluid overload and exacerbate heart failure.
A nurse is planning care immediately following birth for a newborn who has a myelomeningocele that is leaking cerebrospinal fluid. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics.
- B. Monitor the rectal temperature every 4 hr.
- C. Cleanse the site with povidone-iodine.
- D. Prepare for surgical closure after 72 hr.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics. This is crucial for preventing infection due to the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid, which can lead to meningitis. Antibiotics will help reduce the risk of infection until surgical repair can be done. Monitoring rectal temperature (B) is not directly related to addressing the myelomeningocele. Cleansing the site with povidone-iodine (C) may further irritate the area. Surgical closure (D) should not be delayed, as infection risk is high.
A nurse is caring for a client who reports spontaneous rupture of membranes. The nurse observes fetal bradycardia on the FHR tracing and notices that the umbilical cord is protruding. After calling for assistance and notifying the provider, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Perform a vaginal examination by applying upward pressure on the presenting part.
- B. Cover the umbilical cord with a sterile saline-saturated towel.
- C. Administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask at 8 L/min.
- D. Initiate an infusion of IV fluids for the client.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Cover the umbilical cord with a sterile saline-saturated towel.
Rationale: Protruding umbilical cord is a medical emergency that can lead to cord compression and compromise blood flow to the baby, resulting in fetal distress. Covering the cord with a sterile saline-saturated towel helps to prevent cord compression and maintain blood flow until delivery can be expedited. This action ensures the baby continues to receive oxygen and nutrients.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Performing a vaginal examination could further compress the cord and worsen the situation.
C: Administering oxygen may be beneficial for the mother but does not address the immediate risk to the baby from cord compression.
D: Initiating an IV infusion is important but does not address the urgent need to protect the umbilical cord.
E, F, G: No information provided.