A nurse is assessing a client who takes salmeterol to treat moderate asthma. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication has been effective?
- A. The client has decreased mucus production.
- B. The clients daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) measures 85% above personal best.
- C. The client has a respiratory rate of 24/min.
- D. The client reports no nighttime coughing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an increase in the client's daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) by 85% above their personal best indicates improved lung function, which is a positive response to salmeterol. This demonstrates that the medication is effectively managing the asthma symptoms.
Choice A is incorrect because decreased mucus production is not a direct indicator of salmeterol's effectiveness in treating asthma. Choice C is incorrect as the respiratory rate alone does not provide specific information about the medication's effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect since the absence of nighttime coughing may be due to various factors and not solely because of salmeterol's effectiveness.
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A nurse is planning care for a client who has a lump in their right breast. Which of the following findings increases the clients risk of developing breast cancer?
- A. Daily caffeine consumption
- B. A history of seasonal allergies
- C. Oral contraceptives were taken for the last 6 years
- D. Routine use of multivitamins
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oral contraceptives were taken for the last 6 years. Long-term use of oral contraceptives has been associated with a slightly increased risk of developing breast cancer. Estrogen and progesterone in oral contraceptives can stimulate the growth of breast tissue, potentially leading to cancer over time. Daily caffeine consumption (choice A) and a history of seasonal allergies (choice B) do not have a direct correlation with an increased risk of breast cancer. Routine use of multivitamins (choice D) is generally not linked to an increased risk of breast cancer.
A nurse is assessing a client who recently had a myocardial infarction. Which of the following findings indicates that the client might be developing pulmonary edema? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Excessive somnolence
- B. Epistaxis
- C. Pink frothy sputum
- D. Tachypnea
- E. Urinary frequency
Correct Answer: A, C, D
Rationale: The correct answers are A, C, and D. Excessive somnolence (A) can indicate inadequate oxygenation due to pulmonary edema. Pink frothy sputum (C) is a classic sign of pulmonary edema, caused by fluid leaking into the lungs. Tachypnea (D) is the body's response to decreased oxygen levels in the blood, characteristic of pulmonary edema. Epistaxis (B) and urinary frequency (E) are not typically associated with pulmonary edema. In summary, the correct answers reflect respiratory distress and inadequate oxygenation, while the incorrect choices are unrelated symptoms.
A nurse is assessing a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Right lower quadrant pain
- B. Rebound tenderness
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Elevated blood glucose
- E. Hypotension
Correct Answer: A, B, C
Rationale: The correct manifestations for suspected appendicitis are A, B, and C. A is correct as appendicitis typically presents with right lower quadrant pain due to inflammation of the appendix. B is correct as rebound tenderness, which is pain upon release of pressure on the abdomen, is a classic sign of appendicitis. C is correct as nausea and vomiting are common symptoms due to irritation of the gastrointestinal tract. D and E are incorrect as elevated blood glucose and hypotension are not commonly associated with appendicitis.
A nurse is teaching a client about self-management of their halo fixator device. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Place a small pillow under the head while lying supine.
- B. Remove the vest for comfort while sleeping.
- C. Apply lotion under the vest to reduce irritation.
- D. Adjust the screws if the device feels loose.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Place a small pillow under the head while lying supine. This is important to prevent hyperextension of the neck while lying down, ensuring proper alignment and comfort. Removing the vest (B) compromises stability. Applying lotion (C) can cause skin breakdown. Adjusting screws (D) without proper training can lead to complications.
A nurse notes that a clients eyes are protruding slightly from their orbits. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased TSH levels
- B. Increased T4 levels
- C. Elevated calcium levels
- D. Low hemoglobin levels
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should expect increased T4 levels in a client with slightly protruding eyes, known as exophthalmos, as it is a classic sign of hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid gland is overactive. Thyroid hormones, such as T4, are responsible for regulating metabolism, and elevated levels can lead to symptoms like exophthalmos. Decreased TSH levels (choice A) would actually be seen in primary hyperthyroidism due to negative feedback. Elevated calcium levels (choice C) are more indicative of hyperparathyroidism. Low hemoglobin levels (choice D) are not typically associated with exophthalmos or hyperthyroidism.