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What is an expected outcome when a client is receiving an IV administration of furosemide?
- A. Increased blood pressure.
- B. Increased urine output.
- C. Decreased pain.
- D. Decreased premature ventricular contractions.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the ascending loop of Henle in the kidneys, leading to increased urine production. This diuretic effect helps to reduce fluid volume in the body, making it an expected outcome when a client is receiving furosemide. Choice A, increased blood pressure, is incorrect because furosemide typically causes a decrease in blood pressure due to its diuretic effect. Choice C, decreased pain, and choice D, decreased premature ventricular contractions, are unrelated to the pharmacological action of furosemide.
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The client with chronic renal failure is being educated on dietary restrictions. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?
- A. Bananas.
- B. Oranges.
- C. Rice.
- D. Apples.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, and clients with chronic renal failure are often advised to follow a low-potassium diet to prevent hyperkalemia. Oranges and apples are also high in potassium and should be avoided by clients with renal issues. Rice, on the other hand, is low in potassium and is generally considered safe for individuals with chronic renal failure to consume in moderation.
In a patient with type 1 diabetes, which of the following is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Dry skin
- D. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tachycardia is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in a patient with type 1 diabetes. In DKA, the body responds to hyperglycemia and dehydration by increasing heart rate. Polyuria (increased urination) is a symptom of diabetes but not specific to DKA. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and dry skin are not typical signs of DKA; instead, tachycardia and other signs of volume depletion are more common.
A middle-aged adult with a family history of CAD has the following: total cholesterol 198 (11 mmol/L); LDL cholesterol 120 (6.7 mmol/L); HDL cholesterol 58 (3.2 mmol/L); triglycerides 148 (8.2 mmol/L); blood sugar 102 (5.7 mmol/L); and C-reactive protein (CRP) 4.2. The health care provider prescribes a statin medication and aspirin. The client asks the nurse why these medications are needed. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. The labs indicate severe hyperlipidemia and the medications will lower your LDL, along with a low-fat diet.
- B. The triglycerides are elevated and will not return to normal without these medications.
- C. The CRP is elevated indicating inflammation seen in cardiovascular disease, which can be lowered by the medications prescribed.
- D. These medications will reduce the risk of type 2 diabetes.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: CRP is a marker of inflammation, which is elevated in cardiovascular disease. Statins and aspirin help lower CRP and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
An overweight client taking warfarin (Coumadin) has dry skin due to decreased arterial blood flow. What should the nurse instruct the client to do? Select all that apply.
- A. Apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin.
- B. Follow a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet.
- C. Inspect the involved areas daily for new ulcerations.
- D. Instruct the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To address dry skin and prevent chronic ulcers and infections in an overweight client on warfarin with decreased arterial blood flow, the nurse should instruct the client to apply lanolin or petroleum jelly to intact skin. This helps maintain skin integrity and moisture. Following a reduced-calorie, reduced-fat diet (Choice B) may be beneficial for weight management but is not directly related to skin care. Inspecting involved areas daily for new ulcerations (Choice C) is important for skin assessment and early intervention but does not specifically address dry skin. Instructing the client to limit activities of daily living (ADLs) (Choice D) is not necessary for addressing dry skin; in fact, promoting mobility and circulation through appropriate activities is crucial.
An adult who was recently diagnosed with glaucoma tells the nurse, 'it feels like I am driving through a tunnel.' The client expresses great concern about going blind. Which nursing instruction is most important for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen
- B. Avoid frequent eye pressure measurements
- C. Wear prescription glasses
- D. Eat a diet high in carotene
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Maintain prescribed eye drop regimen. In glaucoma, maintaining the prescribed eye drop regimen is crucial for controlling intraocular pressure, which helps in preventing vision loss. Consistent use of eye drops as directed can slow down the progression of the disease and preserve vision. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding frequent eye pressure measurements does not address the primary treatment for glaucoma. Choice C is incorrect as wearing prescription glasses may be helpful for vision correction but does not directly address the management of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because while a diet high in carotene may promote overall eye health, it is not the most important instruction for managing glaucoma.