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A nurse is assessing a late preterm newborn. Which of the following manifestations is an indication of hypoglycemia?
- A. Hypertonia
- B. Increased feeding
- C. Hyperthermia
- D. Respiratory distress
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Respiratory distress. Hypoglycemia in a late preterm newborn can lead to respiratory distress due to inadequate glucose supply to the brain, causing neurologic dysfunction. Hypertonia (choice A) is more indicative of hypocalcemia. Increased feeding (choice B) is not a typical manifestation of hypoglycemia. Hyperthermia (choice C) is not directly related to hypoglycemia. In summary, respiratory distress is a key sign of hypoglycemia in a late preterm newborn, while the other choices are not specific indicators.
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A nurse is admitting a client to the labor and delivery unit when the client states, 'My water just broke.' Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Perform Nitrazine testing.
- B. Assess the fluid.
- C. Check cervical dilation.
- D. Begin FHR monitoring.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Begin FHR monitoring. This is the priority because the client's water breaking indicates a potential risk to the fetus, such as umbilical cord compression or prolapse. FHR monitoring helps assess fetal well-being and detect any signs of distress. Performing Nitrazine testing (A) and checking cervical dilation (C) can wait until after ensuring fetal safety. Assessing the fluid (B) may provide some information but does not directly address the immediate concern for fetal well-being.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 41 weeks of gestation and has a positive contraction stress test. For which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse prepare the client?
- A. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
- B. Amnioinfusion
- C. Biophysical profile (BPP)
- D. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Biophysical profile (BPP). This test evaluates the fetus's well-being by assessing fetal heart rate, fetal breathing movements, fetal movement, fetal tone, and the volume of amniotic fluid. In a client at 41 weeks with a positive contraction stress test, a BPP helps determine if immediate delivery is necessary due to potential fetal distress.
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (A) is used to directly sample fetal blood and assess fetal oxygenation but is not typically indicated in this scenario. Amnioinfusion (B) is used to relieve variable decelerations during labor by infusing sterile fluid into the amniotic cavity, which is not relevant to a client at 41 weeks of gestation with a positive contraction stress test. Chorionic villus sampling (D) is an invasive procedure to diagnose genetic abnormalities early in pregnancy and is not indicated for assessing fetal well-being at 41 weeks.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postpartum and has a fourth-degree laceration of the perineum. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply a moist, warm compress to the perineum.
- B. Provide the client with a cool sitz bath.
- C. Administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg IM.
- D. Apply povidone-iodine to the client’s perineum after she voids.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Apply a moist, warm compress to the perineum.
Rationale: Applying a moist, warm compress helps reduce pain, swelling, and discomfort in the perineal area postpartum. It promotes healing and provides comfort to the client with a fourth-degree laceration. This action also helps improve circulation to the area, aiding in the healing process.
Incorrect Choices:
B: Providing a cool sitz bath may provide relief for hemorrhoids or perineal discomfort but is not the best option for a fourth-degree laceration. Warm compresses are more suitable in this situation.
C: Administering methylergonovine is used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage, not for perineal lacerations.
D: Applying povidone-iodine after voiding is not recommended as it can be irritating to the wound and delay healing.
A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to a newborn. Which of the following sites should the nurse select?
- A. Vastus lateralis
- B. Dorsogluteal
- C. Deltoid
- D. Rectus femoris
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vastus lateralis. For newborns, the vastus lateralis muscle is the preferred site for intramuscular injections due to its large muscle mass, minimal nerves and blood vessels, and reduced risk of hitting bone. It is located on the lateral aspect of the thigh and is easily accessible for injections. This site also allows for proper absorption of the medication. The other options are not ideal for newborns: B: Dorsogluteal is not recommended due to the risk of damaging the sciatic nerve, C: Deltoid is typically used for older children and adults, and D: Rectus femoris is not a common site for IM injections in newborns.
The nurse is assessing the client 24 hr later. How should the nurse interpret the findings?
- A. Hematuria
- B. Proteinuria 2+
- C. Leukorrhea
- D. Positive clonus
- E. BUN 40 mg/dL
- F. Platelet count 110,000/mm3
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Correct Answer:
Rationale:
- Hematuria and Proteinuria 2+ are signs of potential worsening conditions that the nurse should interpret as concerning findings.
- Positive clonus is a sign of potential improvement, indicating a positive response to treatment.
- Leukorrhea is unrelated to the diagnosis and should not be a focus of interpretation after 24 hours.
- BUN 40 mg/dL and Platelet count 110,000/mm3 are not provided in the question and thus cannot be interpreted.