Nokea
A nurse is assessing a newborn upon admission to the nursery. Which of the following should the nurse expect?
- A. Bulging Fontanels
- B. Nasal Flaring
- C. Length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in)
- D. Chest circumference 2 cm (0.8 in) smaller than the head circumference
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a chest circumference smaller than the head circumference is a normal finding in a newborn due to the larger head size compared to the chest. This is known as head sparing and is essential for brain development. Bulging fontanels (choice A) are abnormal and may indicate increased intracranial pressure. Nasal flaring (choice B) is a sign of respiratory distress. A length of 40 cm (choice C) is within the average range but not a specific expectation upon admission. Therefore, choice D is the most appropriate expectation for a newborn assessment.
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A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is 2 days postpartum and wants to continue using her diaphragm for contraception.
- A. You should use an oil-based vaginal lubricant when inserting your diaphragm
- B. You should store your diaphragm in sterile water after each use
- C. You should keep the diaphragm in place for at least 4 hours after intercourse
- D. You should have your provider refit you for a new diaphragm
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: You should have your provider refit you for a new diaphragm. After childbirth, the size and shape of the cervix and vaginal canal may change, affecting the fit of the diaphragm. It is essential to have a healthcare provider assess and refit the diaphragm to ensure proper contraception.
Incorrect answers:
A: Using oil-based vaginal lubricant can degrade latex diaphragms, leading to breakage.
B: Storing the diaphragm in sterile water can damage the latex material and increase the risk of infection.
C: Keeping the diaphragm in place for a specific time after intercourse is not necessary and can increase the risk of toxic shock syndrome.
E: Not applicable.
F: Not applicable.
G: Not applicable.
A nurse is caring for a client who has placenta previa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Firm rigid abdomen
- B. Painless vaginal bleeding
- C. Uterine hypertonicity
- D. Persistent headache
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Painless vaginal bleeding. In placenta previa, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to painless vaginal bleeding. This occurs due to separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. A firm rigid abdomen (A) is more indicative of abruptio placentae. Uterine hypertonicity (C) is seen in conditions like uterine rupture, not placenta previa. Persistent headache (D) is not typically associated with placenta previa.
A nurse is reviewing the electronic medical record of a postpartum client. The nurse should identify that which of the following factors paces the client at risk for infection.
- A. Meconium – start fluid
- B. placenta previa
- C. Midline episiotomy
- D. Prolonged labor
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Midline episiotomy. Midline episiotomies are associated with a higher risk of infection due to the location being close to the anal canal, which harbors bacteria. The incision can become contaminated during bowel movements or urination, increasing the risk of infection. Placenta previa (B) is a condition related to the positioning of the placenta, not directly associated with infection risk. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid (A) may indicate fetal distress but does not directly increase the mother's risk of infection. Prolonged labor (D) can lead to increased risk of infection due to prolonged exposure to vaginal flora, but it is not as direct a risk factor as a midline episiotomy.
A nurse is using Nagele's rule to calculate the expected delivery date of a client who reports the first day of the last menstrual cycle was July 28th. Which of the following dates should the nurse document as the client's expected delivery date?
- A. April 21st
- B. April 4th
- C. May 5th
- D. May 21st
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: May 5th. Nagele's rule is used to estimate the expected delivery date by adding 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual cycle, subtracting 3 months, and then adding 1 year. In this case, the first day of the last menstrual cycle was July 28th. Adding 7 days gives August 4th. Subtracting 3 months gives May 4th. Adding 1 year gives May 4th of the next year. Since May 4th falls on a Sunday, the expected delivery date is adjusted to the following day, May 5th. Choice A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the correct calculations of Nagele's rule.
A nurse is developing an educational program about hemolytic diseases in newborns for a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following genetic information should the nurse include in the program as a cause of hemolytic disease?
- A. The mother is Rh positive, and the father is Rh negative
- B. The mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive
- C. The mother and the father are both Rh positive
- D. The mother and the father are both Rh negative
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The mother is Rh negative, and the father is Rh positive. Hemolytic disease in newborns is caused by Rh incompatibility, where the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive. This leads to the mother developing antibodies against the Rh-positive fetal red blood cells, resulting in hemolysis in the fetus. The other choices are incorrect because Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh positive, not when both parents are Rh positive (choice C) or both are Rh negative (choice D). This educational program should emphasize the importance of Rh factor compatibility in preventing hemolytic disease in newborns.