A nurse is assessing clients who have intravenous therapy prescribed. Which assessment finding for a client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) requires immediate attention?
- A. The initial site dressing is 3 days old.
- B. The PICC was inserted 4 weeks ago.
- C. A securement device is absent.
- D. Upper extremity swelling is noted.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because upper extremity swelling could indicate a potential complication such as deep vein thrombosis, which is a serious condition requiring immediate attention to prevent further complications. Swelling can impede blood flow and lead to clot formation.
A: The initial site dressing being 3 days old is concerning for infection but not an immediate threat.
B: The PICC being inserted 4 weeks ago may increase infection risk but does not require immediate attention.
C: A missing securement device may increase the risk of dislodgement but is not an immediate threat compared to potential vascular compromise indicated by upper extremity swelling.
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A nurse assesses a client who is admitted for treatment of fluid overload. Which manifestations should the nurse expect to find? (Select all that do not apply.)
- A. Increased pulse rate
- B. . Distended neck veins
- C. Warm and pink skin
- D. Skeletal muscle weakness
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Fluid overload leads to increased fluid volume in the body, causing skin to appear pale, cool, and clammy due to poor circulation.
Step 2: "Warm and pink skin" is not a typical manifestation of fluid overload.
Step 3: Therefore, the correct answer is C.
Summary:
A: Increased pulse rate - Possible in fluid overload due to increased volume causing increased workload on the heart.
B: Distended neck veins - Common in fluid overload due to increased venous pressure.
C: Warm and pink skin - Incorrect, as skin is usually pale, cool, and clammy.
D: Skeletal muscle weakness - Not directly related to fluid overload.
A nurse is caring for a client who has the following laboratory results: potassium 3.4 mEq/L, magnesium 1.8 mEq/L, calcium 8.5 mEq/L, sodium 144 mEq/L. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
- A. Assess the client's dietary intake of foods high in potassium.
- B. Assess the client's neuromuscular status.
- C. Assess the client's fluid intake and output.
- D. Read food labels to determine sodium content.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Read food labels to determine sodium content. The nurse should assess the client's sodium level of 144 mEq/L, which is slightly above the normal range. High sodium intake can lead to fluid retention, hypertension, and other health issues. By reading food labels to determine sodium content, the nurse can identify sources of high sodium intake in the client's diet and provide appropriate dietary recommendations. This assessment is crucial in managing the client's sodium levels and overall health.
Assessing the client's dietary intake of foods high in potassium (Choice A) is not the priority in this case since the client's potassium level is within the normal range. Assessing the client's neuromuscular status (Choice B) is important but not the first priority when considering the electrolyte imbalances present. Assessing the client's fluid intake and output (Choice C) is also important but does not address the immediate concern related to the client's elevated sodium level.
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is admitted with moderate dehydration. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent injury while in the hospital?
- A. Ask family members to speak quietly to keep the client calm.
- B. Assess urine color, amount, and specific gravity each day.
- C. Encourage the client to drink at least 1 liter of fluids each shift.
- D. Dangle the client on the bedside before ambulating.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because dangling the client on the bedside before ambulating helps prevent orthostatic hypotension and potential falls. This step allows the nurse to assess the client's tolerance to changes in position and reduces the risk of injury.
A: Asking family members to speak quietly does not directly address the prevention of injury related to dehydration.
B: Assessing urine parameters is important for monitoring hydration status but does not directly prevent injury.
C: Encouraging fluid intake is important for rehydration but does not directly address the risk of injury during ambulation.
A nurse educator is reviewing peripheral IV insertion with a group of novice nurses. How should these nurses be
encouraged to deal with excess hair at the intended site?
- A. Leave the hair intact
- B. Shave the area.
- C. Clip the hair in the area.
- D. Remove the hair with a depilatory.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clip the hair in the area. Clipping the hair is the most appropriate option as it reduces the risk of infection during IV insertion by minimizing the presence of bacteria that may be trapped in the hair. Shaving (B) can cause micro-abrasions leading to increased infection risk. Leaving the hair intact (A) can also trap bacteria. Using a depilatory (D) can cause skin irritation and should be avoided. In summary, clipping the hair is the best option to maintain a clean and safe environment for IV insertion.
. A 73-year-old man comes into the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after slipping on a small carpet in his
home. The patient fell on his hip with a resultant fracture. He is alert and oriented; his pupils are equal and reactive to
light and accommodation. His heart rate is elevated, he is anxious and thirsty, a Foley catheter is placed, and 40 mL of
urine is present. What is the nurses most likely explanation for the low urine output?
- A. The man urinated prior to his arrival to the ED and will probably not need to have the Foley catheter kept
in place.
- B. The man likely has a traumatic brain injury, lacks antidiuretic hormone (ADH), and needs vasopressin.
- C. The man is experiencing symptoms of heart failure and is releasing atrial natriuretic peptide that results in
decreased urine output. - D. The man is having a sympathetic reaction, which has stimulated the reninangiotensinaldosterone system that
results in diminished urine output.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The man's elevated heart rate, anxiety, and low urine output indicate a sympathetic reaction. This reaction stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to decreased urine output. The sympathetic response triggers the release of renin, which activates angiotensin II and aldosterone, causing vasoconstriction and water reabsorption in the kidneys, ultimately reducing urine output. Choice A is incorrect because low urine output is not solely due to urinating before arrival. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication of traumatic brain injury or ADH deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as atrial natriuretic peptide in heart failure typically increases urine output.