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A nurse is auscultating for vesicular breath sounds in a client. Of which quality would the nurse expect these normal breath sounds to be?
- A. Harsh
- B. Hollow
- C. Tubular
- D. Rustling
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Rustling.' Vesicular breath sounds are described as rustling and resemble the sound of wind blowing through trees. Harsh, hollow, and tubular sounds are associated with bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds, not vesicular breath sounds. Harsh sounds are high-pitched, hollow sounds are reverberating, and tubular sounds are like blowing air into a tube. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect descriptions of vesicular breath sounds and are more characteristic of bronchial breath sounds.
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An adult client tells the clinic nurse that he is susceptible to middle ear infections. About which risk factor related to infection of the ears does the nurse question this client?
- A. Loud music
- B. Use of power tools
- C. Occupational noise
- D. Exposure to cigarette smoke
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exposure to cigarette smoke.' Otitis media (middle ear infection) is associated with various factors like colds, allergies, sore throats, and blockage of the eustachian tubes. Risk factors include exposure to cigarette smoke, youth (as otitis media is usually a childhood disease), congenital abnormalities, immune deficiencies, family history of otitis media, recent upper respiratory infections, and allergies. Choices A, B, and C (Loud music, Use of power tools, and Occupational noise) are more likely to cause hearing loss rather than being direct risk factors for middle ear infections.
The client has an order for 0.45 mg of Diltiazem. The medication vial has a concentration of 3 mg/mL. How many mL of the drug should be administered?
- A. 0.15 mL
- B. 6.6 mL
- C. 1.5 mL
- D. 0.65 Ml
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the amount of drug to be administered, divide the ordered dose by the concentration of the medication in the vial. In this case, 0.45 mg ÷ 3 mg/mL = 0.15 mL. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.15 mL.
Choice B (6.6 mL) is incorrect as it does not result from the correct calculation. Choice C (1.5 mL) is incorrect as it is not the result of dividing the ordered dose by the concentration. Choice D (0.65 mL) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information.
The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?
- A. Health promotion
- B. Secondary prevention
- C. Tertiary prevention
- D. Primary prevention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke.
Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia.
Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them.
Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.
A nurse notes that a client's physical examination record states that the client's eyes moved normally through the six cardinal fields of gaze. The nurse interprets this to mean that which aspect of eye function is normal?
- A. Near vision
- B. Central vision
- C. Peripheral vision
- D. Ocular movements
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ocular movements.' Moving the eyes through the six cardinal fields of gaze evaluates the function of the eye muscles, such as the medial rectus muscle, superior rectus muscle, superior oblique muscle, lateral rectus muscle, inferior rectus muscle, and inferior oblique muscle. Normal movement in these fields indicates proper ocular movements. Near vision is assessed using a handheld vision screener, central vision with a Snellen chart, and peripheral vision through the confrontation test. Therefore, the evaluation of ocular movements through the six cardinal fields of gaze specifically assesses this aspect of eye function. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they pertain to different aspects of vision function that are evaluated using distinct assessment methods, not through the six cardinal fields of gaze.
While assisting with data collection on a client, a nurse hears a bruit over the abdominal aorta. What action should the nurse prioritize based on this finding?
- A. Document the finding
- B. Palpate the area for a mass
- C. Notify the healthcare provider
- D. Percuss the abdomen to check for tympany
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Detection of a bruit over the aorta during abdominal assessment may indicate the presence of an aneurysm. The nurse's priority action should be to notify the healthcare provider to further evaluate the situation. Palpating the area or percussing the abdomen could potentially increase the risk of an aneurysm rupture. While documenting the finding is important, the priority is to ensure timely intervention by involving the healthcare provider.