A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery for a client who reports that the first day of her last menstrual period was August 10. Using Nägele’s Rule, which of the following is the client’s estimated date of delivery?
- A. May 13
- B. May 17
- C. May 3
- D. May 20
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: May 17. Nägele's Rule involves adding 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period, subtracting 3 months, and then adding 1 year. In this case, starting from August 10, add 7 days to get August 17. Next, subtract 3 months to get May 17, and finally add 1 year to get the estimated date of delivery as May 17. Choice A (May 13) is incorrect as it does not follow the correct calculation steps. Choice C (May 3) is incorrect as it miscalculates the months. Choice D (May 20) is incorrect as it does not consider the subtraction of 3 months.
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Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Coombs test result
- B. Mucous membrane assessment
- C. Intake and output
- D. Respiratory rate
- E. Head assessment finding
- F. Heart rate
- G. Sclera color
Correct Answer: A,B,C,G
Rationale: The correct answers to report to the provider are A, B, C, and G. A Coombs test result should be reported as it indicates potential hemolytic anemia. Mucous membrane assessment is crucial for hydration status and oxygenation. Intake and output levels are key indicators of kidney function and hydration status. Sclera color can indicate liver function or anemia. Choices D, E, and F are important assessments but do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are outside of normal ranges and affecting the patient's condition.
A nurse is assessing a newborn following a circumcision. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the newborn is experiencing pain?
- A. Decreased heart rate
- B. Chin quivering
- C. Pinpoint pupils
- D. Slowed respirations
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chin quivering. Chin quivering is a common sign of pain in newborns. It indicates discomfort and distress. Decreased heart rate (choice A), pinpoint pupils (choice C), and slowed respirations (choice D) are not typical signs of pain in newborns. Decreased heart rate may indicate relaxation, pinpoint pupils may suggest neurological issues, and slowed respirations may be a response to other factors. Therefore, the most appropriate finding indicating pain in this scenario is chin quivering.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin via continuous IV infusion and is experiencing persistent late decelerations in the FHR. After discontinuing the infusion, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to bear down and push with contractions.
- B. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via nonrebreather facemask.
- C. Place the client in a supine position.
- D. Initiate an amnioinfusion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via nonrebreather facemask. Late decelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which could lead to fetal hypoxia. Providing oxygen at 10 L/min via a nonrebreather facemask helps improve oxygenation for both the mother and the fetus. This intervention aims to increase oxygen delivery to the placenta and subsequently improve fetal oxygenation. In contrast, option A (instructing the client to bear down and push with contractions) can further compromise fetal oxygenation. Option C (placing the client in a supine position) can worsen uteroplacental perfusion. Option D (initiating an amnioinfusion) is not indicated for late decelerations and does not address the underlying cause of fetal hypoxia.
A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born at 26 weeks of gestation using the New Ballard Score. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Minimal arm recoil
- B. Popliteal angle of 90°
- C. Creases over the entire foot sole
- D. Raised areolas with 3 to 4 mm buds
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. At 26 weeks of gestation, newborns are expected to have minimal arm recoil based on the New Ballard Score, as their muscle tone is typically low. This indicates immaturity and aligns with the developmental stage of a premature infant. The other choices are incorrect because: B: A popliteal angle of 90° is more indicative of a term infant. C: Creases over the entire foot sole are also seen in term infants, not premature infants. D: Raised areolas with 3 to 4 mm buds are associated with breast development in term infants, not preterm infants.
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 10 weeks of gestation about nutrition during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. "I should increase my protein intake to 60 grams each day."
- B. "I should drink 2 liters of water each day."
- C. "I should increase my overall daily caloric intake by 300 calories."
- D. "I should take 600 micrograms of folic acid each day."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I should increase my protein intake to 60 grams each day." This is because protein is essential for the growth and development of the fetus. During pregnancy, the recommended daily protein intake increases to support the baby's growth. Adequate protein intake also helps prevent complications such as low birth weight. Increasing protein to 60 grams per day is a specific and appropriate guideline for a client at 10 weeks of gestation.
Choice B is incorrect as hydration is important, but the specific amount of 2 liters per day is not necessarily tailored to the client's needs.
Choice C is incorrect as the increase in caloric intake during pregnancy is typically around 300-500 calories per day, not a fixed 300 calories for all individuals.
Choice D is incorrect as the recommended daily intake of folic acid during pregnancy is 400-800 micrograms, not a fixed amount of 600 micrograms. It is important for neural tube development in the fetus.