Nokea
A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child after corrective surgery for Tetralogy of Fallot. The mother reports that the child has suddenly begun seizing. The nurse recognizes this problem is probably due to
- A. A cerebral vascular accident
- B. Postoperative meningitis
- C. Medication reaction
- D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is a cerebral vascular accident. Polycythemia occurs as a physiological reaction to chronic hypoxemia, which commonly occurs in clients with Tetralogy of Fallot. Polycythemia and the resultant increased viscosity of the blood increase the risk of thromboembolic events, including cerebrovascular accidents. Signs and symptoms of a cerebral vascular accident include sudden paralysis, altered speech, extreme irritability or fatigue, and seizures. Postoperative meningitis (choice B) is less likely in this scenario as the sudden onset of seizing is more indicative of a vascular event rather than an infection. Medication reaction (choice C) is not the most probable cause given the history provided. Metabolic alkalosis (choice D) is not associated with sudden seizing in this context.
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Which of the following measures would be appropriate for a nurse to teach the parent of a nine-month-old infant about diaper dermatitis?
- A. Use only cloth diapers that are rinsed in bleach
- B. Do not use occlusive ointments on the rash
- C. Use commercial baby wipes with each diaper change
- D. Discontinue a new food that was added to the infant's diet just prior to the rash
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Diaper dermatitis can be caused by various factors, one of which includes introducing new foods to the infant's diet. Discontinuing the new food that was added just before the rash can help identify and eliminate the potential cause. Options A and C are not directly related to addressing the cause of diaper dermatitis. While using cloth diapers rinsed in bleach may be a preventive measure for diaper dermatitis, it is not addressing a specific cause. Option B, advising against using occlusive ointments on the rash, may actually be beneficial in managing diaper dermatitis, but it does not address the cause of the condition.
A client complained of nausea, a metallic taste in her mouth, and fine hand tremors 2 hours after her first dose of lithium carbonate (Lithane). What is the nurse's best explanation of these findings?
- A. These side effects are common and should subside in a few days.
- B. The client is probably having an allergic reaction and should discontinue the drug.
- C. Taking the lithium on an empty stomach should decrease these symptoms.
- D. Decreasing dietary intake of sodium and fluids should minimize the side effects.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is, 'These side effects are common and should subside in a few days.' Nausea, metallic taste, and fine hand tremors are common side effects of lithium carbonate (Lithane) and typically diminish within a few days as the body adjusts to the medication. Option B is incorrect because these symptoms are not indicative of an allergic reaction. Option C is incorrect as taking lithium on an empty stomach does not directly address or decrease these specific side effects. Option D is also incorrect as reducing sodium and fluid intake is not the recommended approach to managing these particular side effects of lithium.
Which response would best assist the chemically impaired client in dealing with issues of guilt?
- A. Addiction usually causes people to feel guilty. Don't worry, it is a typical response due to your drinking behavior.
- B. What have you done that you feel most guilty about and what steps can you begin to take to help you lessen this guilt?
- C. Don't focus on your guilty feelings. These feelings will only lead you to drinking and taking drugs.
- D. You've caused a great deal of pain to your family and close friends, so it will take time to undo all the things you've done.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is, 'What have you done that you feel most guilty about and what steps can you begin to take to help you lessen this guilt?' This response encourages the client to reflect on their actions, identify sources of guilt, and develop a plan to address and reduce these feelings constructively. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's guilt as typical, potentially invalidating their emotions. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests avoiding guilty feelings by turning to substance use, which is counterproductive. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on the negative consequences of the client's actions without offering a constructive way to address and alleviate guilt.
What nursing action demonstrates the nurse understands the priority nursing diagnosis when caring for patients being treated with splints, casts, or traction?
- A. The nurse assesses extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour.
- B. The nurse orders meals with adequate protein and calcium for the patient.
- C. The nurse teaches the patient never to insert objects under a cast to scratch an itch.
- D. The nurse administers oral painkillers as ordered.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess extremity pulse, temperature, color, pain, and feeling every hour. This action aligns with the priority nursing diagnosis of Risk for Peripheral Neurovascular Dysfunction related to fractures. Monitoring these factors is crucial to detect any signs of compromised circulation or nerve function promptly. Option B is incorrect as it does not directly address the priority nursing diagnosis. Option C is important but does not directly relate to the neurovascular aspect. Option D, administering painkillers, is necessary but does not specifically address the priority nursing diagnosis of neurovascular dysfunction.
A patient is admitted and complains of gastric pain, fever, and diarrhea. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Abdominal distention
- B. A bruit near the epigastric area
- C. 3 episodes of vomiting in the last hour
- D. Blood pressure of 160/90
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A bruit near the epigastric area may indicate the presence of an aortic aneurysm, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical attention. Abdominal distention, while concerning, may not be as urgent as a potential aneurysm. Vomiting episodes may suggest underlying issues but do not present an immediate life-threatening situation. A blood pressure of 160/90, though elevated, does not pose the same level of immediate threat as a potential aortic aneurysm.