Nokea
A nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child diagnosed with leukemia who is admitted with myelosuppression.
- A. "Provide a diet high in carbohydrates."'
- B. "Monitor rectal temperature every 4 hr."'
- C. "Use lemon or glycerin swabs for oral care."'
- D. "Inspect the skin daily for lesions."'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Inspect the skin daily for lesions." This is important because myelosuppression can lead to decreased platelets, increasing the risk of skin lesions and bleeding. Monitoring the skin daily can help detect any lesions early and prevent complications.
A: Providing a high-carbohydrate diet is not directly related to managing myelosuppression.
B: Monitoring rectal temperature is important but not directly related to skin lesion detection.
C: Using lemon or glycerin swabs for oral care is important for mucositis, not skin lesions.
You may also like to solve these questions
Which explanation is most appropriate when describing physiological jaundice to the parents of a newborn?
- A. The baby has a minor incompatibility of the blood.
- B. The baby is breaking down the extra red blood cells that were present at birth.
- C. The baby is getting too much breast milk, but this is not dangerous.
- D. The baby may have gotten exposed to hepatitis B during the delivery.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The baby is breaking down the extra red blood cells that were present at birth. Physiological jaundice in newborns occurs due to the breakdown of excess red blood cells, leading to an increase in bilirubin levels. This is a normal process as the baby's liver is still maturing.
Choice A is incorrect because minor blood incompatibility usually leads to a condition known as hemolytic disease of the newborn, not physiological jaundice. Choice C is incorrect as breast milk does not cause physiological jaundice. Choice D is incorrect because hepatitis B exposure does not directly cause physiological jaundice in newborns.
A nurse is caring for a child who has hemophilia. The nurse should expect abnormal results in which of the following diagnostic tests?
- A. Fibrinogen
- B. Hemoglobin level
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). In hemophilia, there is a deficiency in specific clotting factors, leading to prolonged PTT due to impaired intrinsic pathway function. A: Fibrinogen level is normal in hemophilia as it is not affected by clotting factor deficiencies. B: Hemoglobin level is unrelated to hemophilia and reflects oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. C: Prothrombin time (PT) evaluates the extrinsic pathway, which is typically normal in hemophilia. Therefore, the abnormal result is in PTT, making it the correct choice.
Which preoperative nursing interventions should be included for a client who is scheduled to have an emergency cesarean birth?
- A. Monitoring O2 saturations and administering pain medications are postoperative interventions.
- B. Taking vital signs every 15 minutes is a postoperative intervention. Instructing the client regarding breathing exercises is not appropriate in a crisis situation when the client's anxiety is high, because information would probably not be retained. In an emergency, there is time only for essential interventions.
- C. Because this is an emergency, surgery must be performed quickly. Anxiety of the client and the family will be high. Inserting an indwelling catheter helps to keep the bladder empty and free from injury when the incision is made.
- D. The nurse should have assessed breath sounds upon admission. Breath sounds are important if the client is to receive general anesthesia, but the anesthesiologist will be listening to breath sounds in surgery in that case.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because in an emergency cesarean birth, surgery must be performed quickly to ensure the safety of the mother and baby. Inserting an indwelling catheter is crucial to keep the bladder empty and prevent injury during the incision. This intervention helps maintain a sterile field and reduces the risk of infection. Additionally, a full bladder can impede the progress of surgery. Monitoring O2 saturations and administering pain medications (A) are postoperative interventions and not relevant in the preoperative phase. Taking vital signs every 15 minutes (B) is more appropriate for the postoperative period. Assessing breath sounds (D) is important but typically done by the anesthesiologist during surgery. Instructing the client about breathing exercises (B) may not be effective in an emergency situation where immediate interventions are necessary.
For a client in the second trimester of pregnancy, which assessment data support a diagnosis of pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH)?
- A. Hemoglobin 10.2 mg/dL and uterine tenderness
- B. Polyuria and weight loss of 3 pounds in the last month
- C. Blood pressure 168/110 and 3+ proteinuria
- D. Hematuria and blood glucose of 160 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Blood pressure 168/110 and 3+ proteinuria. Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is characterized by high blood pressure (systolic ≥140 mmHg and/or diastolic ≥90 mmHg) and proteinuria. In this case, the blood pressure reading of 168/110 indicates hypertension, and 3+ proteinuria indicates significant protein in the urine, both of which are key diagnostic criteria for PIH.
A: Hemoglobin 10.2 mg/dL and uterine tenderness - These are not specific indicators of PIH.
B: Polyuria and weight loss of 3 pounds in the last month - These symptoms are not typically associated with PIH.
D: Hematuria and blood glucose of 160 mg/dL - Hematuria suggests blood in the urine, which is not a typical finding in PIH, and elevated blood glucose is more indicative of diabetes rather than PIH.
Therefore,
A nurse is providing client/patient education to the mother of an 8-year-old child diagnosed with B-hemolytic streptococci infection (strep throat). The nurse emphasizes the importance of promptly starting and completing the entire course of antibiotics.
- A. alleviate painful swallowing to avoid complications of dehydration and malnutrition'
- B. prevent sinusitis or abscess formation on the pharyngeal or peri tonsillar areas'
- C. reduce the risk of anterior cervical lymphadenopathy'
- D. eliminate organisms that might initiate acute renal failure or rheumatic fever'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Completing the entire course of antibiotics for strep throat is crucial to eliminate the bacteria completely. Failure to do so may lead to potential complications like acute renal failure or rheumatic fever, which are serious systemic conditions associated with untreated strep infections. This is because streptococcal infections can trigger an immune response that can attack other parts of the body if not fully eradicated.
Choice A is incorrect because while completing the antibiotics may alleviate painful swallowing, the main emphasis should be on preventing systemic complications. Choice B is incorrect as sinusitis or abscess formation are not the primary concerns with strep throat. Choice C is incorrect as reducing anterior cervical lymphadenopathy is not the primary goal of antibiotic treatment for strep throat.
In summary, completing the full course of antibiotics is crucial to eliminate the bacteria and prevent serious complications such as acute renal failure or rheumatic fever.