A nurse is caring for a client immediately following a lumbar puncture. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Limit the client's fluid intake.
- B. Measure blood glucose every 2 hr.
- C. Instruct the client to expect tingling in their extremities.
- D. Instruct the client to lie flat.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Instruct the client to lie flat. This is important to prevent post-lumbar puncture headache by promoting the closure of the dural puncture site. Lying flat helps reduce the risk of cerebrospinal fluid leakage and subsequent headache. Limiting fluid intake (A) is not necessary post-lumbar puncture. Monitoring blood glucose (B) is not directly related to lumbar puncture care. Expecting tingling in extremities (C) is not a common post-lumbar puncture symptom.
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A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who is receiving treatment for genital herpes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates effectiveness of the teaching?
- A. I should apply antibiotic ointment to the lesions.'
- B. I should use natural skin condoms during sexual intercourse.'
- C. I should expect my lesions to resolve in 6 weeks.'
- D. I should expect to take my medication for 3 weeks.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I should expect my lesions to resolve in 6 weeks." This indicates effectiveness of teaching because it shows the client understands the natural course of genital herpes and the expected timeline for resolution. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotic ointment is not recommended for herpes. Choice B is incorrect because natural skin condoms do not provide adequate protection against herpes. Choice D is incorrect because treatment duration may vary and is not always 3 weeks.
A nurse is preparing to administer propranolol to several clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse clarify the prescription with the provider before administration?
- A. A client who has a history of asthma
- B. A client who has hypertension
- C. A client who has a history of migraines
- D. A client who has stable angina
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A client who has a history of asthma. Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can potentially cause bronchoconstriction in clients with asthma due to its beta-2 antagonistic effects. The nurse should clarify the prescription with the provider for this client to avoid exacerbating respiratory issues. Choices B, C, and D are not contraindications for propranolol administration, as hypertension, migraines, and stable angina are conditions that can be treated with beta-blockers. It is important for the nurse to assess each client's medical history and consider potential contraindications before administering medications to ensure client safety and optimal outcomes.
For each potential provider's prescription, click to specify if the potential prescription is anticipated, Non-essential or contraindicated for the client.
- A. Metoprolol 15 mg IV bolus
- B. Oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
- C. Draw electrolytes along with Hgb and Hct
- D. Morphine 6 mg IV bolus every 3 hrs as needed for pain
- E. Nitroglycerin 0.5 mg SL now may repeat every 5 min up to 3 doses
- F. Obtain daily weight
Correct Answer: A,B,C,D E, F
Rationale: [1,1,1,1,1,1]
- Metoprolol 15 mg IV bolus: Anticipated for managing hypertension or tachycardia.
- Oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula: Anticipated for hypoxemia.
- Draw electrolytes along with Hgb and Hct: Anticipated for baseline assessment.
- Morphine 6 mg IV bolus every 3 hrs: Anticipated for pain management.
- Nitroglycerin 0.5 mg SL: Not included in the options.
- Obtain daily weight: Important for monitoring fluid status.
A nurse manager is providing an in-service to a group of newly licensed nurses about the use of personal protective equipment. Which of the following statements by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should wear a gown to remove linens from a client's be '
- B. Sterile gloves are required when administering an IM injection.'
- C. I should wear goggles when irrigating a woun '
- D. I should use both hands to recap a needle.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I should wear goggles when irrigating a wound." This indicates an understanding of the teaching as goggles protect the eyes from splashes and sprays. Wearing goggles during wound irrigation helps prevent potential eye exposure to contaminated fluids, reducing the risk of infection.
Choice A is incorrect because wearing a gown to remove linens is unnecessary for personal protective equipment during this task. Choice B is incorrect as sterile gloves are required for clean procedures like wound care, not for administering IM injections. Choice D is incorrect because using both hands to recap a needle increases the risk of needle-stick injuries.
A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic venous insufficiency. Which of the following areas should the nurse assess for the presence of a venous ulcer?
- A. Tip of the toes
- B. Medial malleolus (ankle)
- C. Ball of the foot
- D. Heel of the foot
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Medial malleolus (ankle). Venous ulcers commonly occur in the lower legs, particularly around the medial malleolus due to poor circulation in chronic venous insufficiency. The pressure and pooling of blood in the veins can lead to tissue breakdown and ulcer formation in this area. Assessing the medial malleolus for the presence of a venous ulcer is crucial in managing the client's condition.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Tip of the toes - Venous ulcers are less likely to occur in this area as it is more distal and less affected by venous insufficiency.
C: Ball of the foot - Venous ulcers are more commonly found in the lower legs rather than the ball of the foot.
D: Heel of the foot - While ulcers can develop on the heel, they are less likely to be venous ulcers in chronic venous insufficiency compared to the medial malleol