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A nurse is caring for a client taking ciprofloxacin for an infection. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the client education?
- A. Constipation
- B. Tendon rupture
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Nasal congestion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tendon rupture. Ciprofloxacin belongs to the fluoroquinolone class of antibiotics, which is associated with the adverse effect of tendon rupture. Tendon rupture is a severe but rare side effect that can occur with the use of ciprofloxacin. Educating the client about this potential adverse effect is crucial to promote awareness and early recognition of symptoms, such as tendon pain, swelling, or inflammation. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use and are less relevant for client education in this scenario.
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A 45-year-old client is taking methylprednisolone. What pharmacologic action should the nurse expect with this therapy?
- A. Suppression of beta2 receptors
- B. Suppression of airway mucus production
- C. Fortification of bones
- D. Suppression of candidiasis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppression of airway mucus production. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are known to suppress airway mucus production. This action helps in reducing inflammation and swelling in the airways, making breathing easier for individuals with conditions like asthma or COPD. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Suppression of beta2 receptors is more related to beta-blockers, fortification of bones is associated with medications like bisphosphonates, and suppression of candidiasis is not a typical pharmacologic action of methylprednisolone.
A 52-year-old client with a history of angina has been prescribed transdermal nitroglycerin. Which of the following adverse effects is not associated with this therapy?
- A. Tolerance
- B. Orthostatic hypotension
- C. Headache
- D. Productive cough
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Productive cough. Nitroglycerin therapy can lead to adverse effects such as tolerance, orthostatic hypotension, and headache. However, it is not known to cause a productive cough. Tolerance may develop over time, requiring dose adjustments. Orthostatic hypotension can occur due to vasodilation effects, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Headache is a common side effect due to vasodilation of cranial blood vessels. Productive cough is not a recognized adverse effect associated with transdermal nitroglycerin therapy.
A client prescribed hydromorphone for severe pain has a decreased respiratory rate from 16 breaths per minute to 6. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
- A. Flumazenil
- B. Naloxone
- C. Activated charcoal
- D. Aluminum hydroxide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Naloxone is the correct answer as it is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression. Hydromorphone is an opioid medication that can cause respiratory depression at high doses. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that competes with opioids at receptor sites, reversing the effects of opioids like hydromorphone. Flumazenil (Choice A) is a benzodiazepine antagonist used for benzodiazepine overdose, not opioid overdose. Activated charcoal (Choice C) is used for toxin ingestion to prevent absorption in the gastrointestinal tract, but it is not indicated for opioid overdose. Aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) is an antacid and would not be the appropriate intervention for respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin sodium to a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor during therapy?
- A. INR
- B. Serum creatinine
- C. aPTT
- D. Bilirubin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT. The healthcare provider should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) value during heparin therapy to assess the client's coagulation status. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent bleeding or clotting issues. INR (Choice A) is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Serum creatinine (Choice B) is not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy. Bilirubin (Choice D) is related to liver function, not heparin therapy.
A client is prescribed digoxin 0.125 mg daily for heart failure. Which of the following client reports should concern the nurse as a sign of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Visual disturbances
- C. Weight gain
- D. Constipation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Visual disturbances such as blurred vision or seeing halos around lights are common signs of digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite, weight gain, and constipation are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Weight gain could be a sign of worsening heart failure rather than digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite and constipation are not specific signs of digoxin toxicity and are less likely to be related.