Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client. Which of the following interventions should the nurse perform?
- A. Inspect the perineum.
- B. Massage the fundus.
- C. Administer oxytocin.
- D. Assist the client to void.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Massaging the fundus stimulates uterine contractions, reducing uterine atony and preventing further hemorrhage. This is a first-line intervention for postpartum excessive bleeding.
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A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following food suggestions should the nurse include?
- A. Peanut butter sandwich.
- B. Sliced apples.
- C. Glass of skim milk.
- D. Scrambled egg.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Apples are low in phenylalanine, making them a safe option for individuals with phenylketonuria. They provide essential nutrients without contributing to phenylalanine accumulation.
Following this type of birth, the nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhage and monitor the newborn for facial nerve palsy. What additional care should the nurse consider?
- A. Administering prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infection.
- B. Assessing for signs of jaundice in the newborn.
- C. Monitoring the client's vital signs for stability.
- D. Educating the client on breastfeeding techniques.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Jaundice assessment is critical for newborns with facial bruising or cephalohematoma, as bilirubin levels may rise due to blood breakdown in the localized hematoma.
A nurse is caring for a client who gave birth 4 hr ago and is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?
- A. Elevate the client's legs to a 30° angle.
- B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.
- C. Massage the client's fundus.
- D. Initiate an infusion of oxytocin.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Massaging the fundus promotes uterine contraction, which is the first-line intervention to control postpartum hemorrhage caused by uterine atony.
A nurse in the labor and delivery triage unit assesses a client who has been pushing for 2.5 hours with minimal progress. The fetal head remains at +2 station. Which of the following is the most appropriate next action?
- A. Perform a vaginal exam to reassess effacement and dilation.
- B. Notify the primary health care provider about minimal progress.
- C. Prepare the client for vacuum-assisted delivery.
- D. Administer intravenous oxytocin.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Notifying the primary health care provider about minimal progress is the most appropriate next action. The client has been pushing for 2.5 hours with minimal progress, which raises concern for potential complications such as cephalopelvic disproportion or maternal exhaustion.
A client reports an intermittent dark brown vaginal discharge for the past three days. What should the nurse do?
- A. The nurse should assess the client for signs of molar pregnancy.
- B. The nurse should evaluate the risk for hypovolemic shock due to blood loss.
- C. The nurse should ensure appropriate laboratory testing for the diagnosis of choriocarcinoma.
- D. The nurse should prioritize preparing the client for suction and curettage.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Molar pregnancy often manifests as intermittent dark brown vaginal discharge due to trophoblastic tissue expulsion. It warrants assessment as it correlates with hCG elevation and abnormal placental development.