A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for propranolol for the treatment of atrial fibrillation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medication with an antacid.
- B. Instruct the client to expect increased hair growth.
- C. Withhold the medication if the systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mm Hg
- D. Request a dosage increase if the apical heart rate is less than 60/min.
- E. Monitor for weight gain.
- F. Check respiratory rate.
- G. Administer with food.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol, a beta-blocker, should be withheld if BP is low to avoid hypotension; antacids don't interact, and hair growth isn't an effect.
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A nurse enters a client's room and sees smoke coming from the bathroom. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Use a fire extinguisher at the source of the smoke.
- B. Close the doors to the room and to the bathroom.
- C. Activate the fire alarm system.
- D. Assist the client to a nearby common area.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Assisting the client to safety is the first priority in a fire emergency per the RACE protocol (Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish).
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a right radical mastectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the development of lymphedema?
- A. Obtain blood pressure readings using the client's right arm.
- B. Limit range-of-motion exercises with the affected arm.
- C. Keep both arms below the level of the client's heart.
- D. Use the client's left arm to obtain blood samples.
- E. Elevate the right arm.
- F. Apply compression bandages.
- G. Avoid tight clothing.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Using the left arm prevents trauma to the right side, reducing lymphedema risk; BP on the affected arm increases risk.
Vital Signs
Day 1:
• Temperature 36°C (96.8°F)
• Blood pressure 140/80 mm Hg
• Heart rate 98/min
• Respiratory rate 24/min
• Oxygen saturation 97% on room air
Day 2, 0800:
• Temperature 37°C (98.6°F)
• Blood pressure 122/60 mm Hg
• Heart rate 85/min
• Respiratory rate 18/min
• Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
A nurse is assisting in the plan of care for the client who has compartment syndrome. Which potential prescription is anticipated?
- A. Open the splint
- B. Obtain a urinalysis
- C. Place the client on NPO status
- D. Place the client's right leg in a dependent position
Correct Answer: A, D
Rationale: Compartment syndrome requires relieving pressure to restore perfusion. Opening the splint (or cast) reduces external compression, an anticipated step pre-fasciotomy if tightness contributes to ischemia, per orthopedic protocols. Urinalysis checks for myoglobinuria from muscle breakdown, a diagnostic aid, but not immediate relief. NPO status prepares for surgery, a later consideration after pressure relief. A dependent leg position increases venous pooling, worsening swelling and pressure contraindicated here. Opening the splint directly addresses the mechanical cause, buying time for surgical evaluation, aligning with emergency management (e.g., AAOS guidelines), making it the expected prescription to prioritize limb viability.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is newly diagnosed with dumping syndrome. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Remain upright for 30 min after eating.
- B. Eat three large meals per day.
- C. Drink water with meals.
- D. Eliminate simple sugars.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dumping syndrome occurs post-gastric surgery when food moves too quickly into the small intestine, causing nausea, diarrhea, and weakness. Eliminating simple sugars is key sugars draw fluid into the gut, worsening osmotic shifts and symptoms. Remaining upright helps slow gastric emptying but isn't the primary dietary fix. Eating three large meals overloads the stomach, triggering rapid dumping, whereas small, frequent meals are recommended. Drinking water with meals dilutes stomach contents, accelerating emptying and exacerbating symptoms; fluids should be taken between meals. Cutting simple sugars (e.g., candy, soda) reduces hyperosmolarity, stabilizes digestion, and aligns with evidence-based management, improving quality of life. This instruction empowers the client to control symptoms through diet, a cornerstone of dumping syndrome care, making it the most effective teaching point.
A nurse is preparing to administer epoetin 50 units/kg via subcutaneous injection to a client who weighs 165 lb and has chronic kidney disease. How many units should the nurse administer?
- A. 3750 units
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 165 lb = 75 kg; 50 units/kg × 75 kg = 3750 units, correct for stimulating RBC production in CKD.
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