A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for propranolol for the treatment of atrial fibrillation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request a dosage increase if the apical heart rate is less than 60/min.
- B. Withhold the medication if the systolic blood pressure is less than 90 mm Hg.
- C. Administer the medication with an antacid.
- D. Instruct the client to expect increased hair growth.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Propranolol is a beta-blocker, and it should be withheld if the systolic blood pressure is below 90 mm Hg to prevent hypotension. A heart rate below 60/min might also warrant withholding, not increasing, the dose, and the other options are unrelated to its administration.
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A nurse is collecting admission history data from a client who is in a semi-private room. Which of the following data is the priority for the nurse to address?
- A. History of generalized anxiety disorder
- B. Recent exposure to tuberculosis
- C. Reports periodic migraine headaches
- D. Experiences nocturia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Recent tuberculosis exposure is a public health priority it's contagious via airborne droplets, risking spread in a semi-private room. Immediate isolation and testing (e.g., PPD, chest X-ray) protect the client, roommate, and staff, per CDC guidelines. Anxiety disorder affects mental health but isn't acutely transmissible or life-threatening here. Migraines cause discomfort, not immediate danger, manageable with later intervention. Nocturia disrupts sleep and may signal underlying issues, but it's less urgent than infection control. TB exposure triggers rapid response respiratory isolation, contact tracing due to its morbidity (e.g., pulmonary damage) and outbreak potential, making it the top priority to address on admission.
A nurse enters a client's room and sees smoke coming from the bathroom. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Use a fire extinguisher at the source of the smoke.
- B. Close the doors to the room and to the bathroom.
- C. Activate the fire alarm system.
- D. Assist the client to a nearby common area.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Assisting the client to safety is the first priority in a fire emergency per the RACE protocol (Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish).
Exhibit 1 Exhibit 2 Exhibit 3
Graphic Record
Heart rate 112/min
Blood pressure 122/60 mm Hg
Temperature 38.6° C (101.5° F)
Respiratory rate 24/min
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following information is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Sputum results
- B. Creatinine level
- C. Temperature
- D. WBC count
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pneumonia, an acute respiratory infection, requires monitoring for signs of worsening condition or treatment response. The exhibit shows heart rate 112/min, blood pressure 122/60 mm Hg, temperature 38.6°C (101.5°F), and respiratory rate 24/min. Option C, temperature, is the priority 38.6°C indicates fever, a key sign of active infection or potential sepsis, especially with tachycardia (112/min) and tachypnea (24/min). This triad suggests systemic inflammatory response, needing urgent provider attention to adjust antibiotics or assess deterioration. Option A, sputum results, guides therapy but isn't immediately actionable without context. Option B, creatinine, monitors kidney function but isn't the acute priority here. Option D, WBC count, reflects infection severity but fever drives immediate concern. Elevated temperature, per triage protocols, signals potential escalation, making it the most critical to report for timely intervention.
VITAL SIGNS
Day 1:
TEMPERATURE 36° C (96.8° F)
BLOOD PRESSURE 140/80 mm Hg
HEART RATE 98/min
RESPIRATORY RATE 24/min
OXYGEN SATURATION 97% on room air
Day 2, 0800:
TEMPERATURE 37° C (98.6° F)
BLOOD PRESSURE 122/60 mm Hg
HEART RATE 85/min
RESPIRATORY RATE 18/min
OXYGEN SATURATION 98% on room air
Day 2, 1600:
Findings
• Dyspnea
• Tingling sensation to right foot
• Increased pain at incision site
• Swelling at incision site
Acute compartment syndrome
• Dyspnea
• Tingling sensation to right foot
• Increased pain at incision site
• Swelling at incision site
Infection
• Dyspnea
• Tingling sensation to right foot
• Increased pain at incision site
• Swelling at incision site
Fat embolism syndrome
• Dyspnea
• Tingling sensation to right foot
• Increased pain at incision site
• Swelling at incision site
A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the right tibia. Which finding is consistent with acute compartment syndrome?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Tingling sensation to right foot
- C. Increased pain at incision site
- D. Swelling at incision site
Correct Answer: A, C
Rationale: Acute compartment syndrome post-ORIF arises from pressure buildup in muscle compartments, impairing perfusion. Increased pain at the incision site severe, unrelieved by analgesics, and disproportionate to the procedure is a hallmark, reflecting nerve and tissue ischemia. Dyspnea suggests fat embolism syndrome, a separate complication from marrow release, not compartment pressure. Tingling indicates nerve compression, a later sign, but pain precedes it in the 6 Ps (pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, poikilothermia). Swelling occurs, but pain's intensity and persistence distinguish compartment syndrome from normal postoperative edema. Early recognition of escalating pain prompts fasciotomy, preventing necrosis, making it the most consistent finding per orthopedic emergency protocols.
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with the family of a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) of a leg wound and is on contact precautions. Which of the following statements by a family member indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. We should remove gloves before leaving the hospital room.
- B. There is no cure for MRSA.
- C. MRSA only occurs in health care facilities.
- D. We will need to wear masks when we are in the hospital room.
- E. We can touch the client without precautions.
- F. MRSA will resolve without treatment.
- G. We should wash hands after glove removal.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gloves should be removed before leaving to prevent contamination spread; MRSA is treatable, can occur outside facilities, and masks aren't required for contact precautions.
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