Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart
- B. Administer acetaminophen for pain
- C. Massage the affected extremity every 4 hours
- D. Withhold heparin IV infusion
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to withhold heparin IV infusion. The nurse should withhold heparin if there are signs of complications, such as bleeding, or if there are contraindications to continuing anticoagulation therapy. Positioning the client with the affected extremity higher than the heart helps reduce swelling and improve blood flow. Administering acetaminophen for pain management can be appropriate, but it is not the priority in this situation. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge the clot and lead to serious complications, so it should be avoided.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse on the medical-surgical unit is receiving reports on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. A client who is receiving warfarin and has an INR of 3.3
- B. A client who has acute kidney injury, creatinine 4 mg/dL, and BUN 52 mg/dL
- C. A client who had an NG tube inserted 6 hours ago and has abdominal distention
- D. A client who is 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports fullness in the throat
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client who is 4 hours postoperative following a thyroidectomy and reports fullness in the throat should be assessed first. This client may be experiencing airway obstruction due to hematoma or swelling, making it a priority. Options A, B, and C have concerning findings as well, but airway compromise takes precedence over other issues.
A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
- A. Shivering
- B. Oliguria
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Constricted pupils
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.
A client receiving IV moderate (conscious) sedation with midazolam has a respiratory rate of 9/min and is not responding to commands. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Place the client in a prone position
- B. Implement positive pressure ventilation
- C. Perform nasopharyngeal suctioning
- D. Administer flumazenil
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of respiratory depression and central nervous system depression due to midazolam sedation. Administering flumazenil is the correct action as it is the antidote for midazolam, a benzodiazepine, and can reverse the sedative effects to restore respiratory function. Placing the client in a prone position (choice A) may worsen respiratory compromise. Implementing positive pressure ventilation (choice B) is not the first-line intervention for sedation-related respiratory depression. Performing nasopharyngeal suctioning (choice C) is not indicated as there are no signs of airway obstruction requiring suctioning.
A nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following client findings indicates medication toxicity?
- A. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL
- B. Urine output of 20 mL per hour
- C. Systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg
- D. BUN 20 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A urine output of 20 mL per hour is low and indicates renal insufficiency, a sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity. The medication is excreted by the kidneys, so toxicity can occur if renal function declines. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dL is within normal range and not indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity. A systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg is elevated but not specifically related to magnesium sulfate toxicity. A BUN level of 20 mg/dL is also within normal limits and not a sign of medication toxicity.
A nurse in a mental health facility receives a change-of-shift report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?
- A. Client placed in restraints for aggressive behavior
- B. A new client with a history of a 4.5 kg weight loss in the past two months
- C. Client who received a PRN dose of haloperidol 2 hours ago for increased anxiety
- D. Client who will be receiving his first ECT treatment today
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A client in restraints due to aggressive behavior needs immediate assessment to ensure safety and well-being. The nurse should assess this client first to address any potential risks, such as circulation issues, skin integrity problems, and ongoing agitation. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate safety concerns that require urgent assessment compared to a client restrained for aggressive behavior.