Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who has dumping syndrome following a gastric resection. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications of dumping syndrome?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Iron-deficiency anemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Iron-deficiency anemia. Dumping syndrome following a gastric resection can lead to rapid emptying of the stomach contents into the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients, especially iron. Iron-deficiency anemia can develop due to inadequate iron absorption. Monitoring for anemia is crucial in these clients.
Hyperkalemia (A), hypoglycemia (B), and hypertension (D) are not typical complications of dumping syndrome. Hyperkalemia is high potassium levels, hypoglycemia is low blood sugar, and hypertension is high blood pressure, which are not directly associated with dumping syndrome.
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An emergency room nurse is assessing a client who has asthma and difficulty breathing. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing status asthmaticus?
- A. Mild wheezing
- B. Use of accessory muscles
- C. Decreased respiratory rate
- D. Productive cough
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use of accessory muscles. In status asthmaticus, a severe and life-threatening asthma exacerbation, the client's airways are severely constricted, leading to inadequate air exchange. The use of accessory muscles (such as intercostal and supraclavicular muscles) indicates significant respiratory distress as the body tries to compensate for the difficulty in breathing. Mild wheezing (choice A) may be present in asthma but does not necessarily indicate status asthmaticus. Decreased respiratory rate (choice C) is not consistent with the increased respiratory effort seen in status asthmaticus. Productive cough (choice D) is more indicative of conditions such as bronchitis or pneumonia, not necessarily status asthmaticus.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for phenytoin to treat a seizure disorder. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately to the provider?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Gingival hyperplasia
- C. Skin rash
- D. Mild nausea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Skin rash. This is because phenytoin can cause severe and potentially life-threatening skin reactions like Stevens-Johnson syndrome or toxic epidermal necrolysis. These reactions can progress rapidly, so immediate medical attention is crucial. Drowsiness (A) is a common side effect of phenytoin but not typically an emergency. Gingival hyperplasia (B) and mild nausea (D) are common side effects that do not require immediate reporting.
A nurse is assessing a client for fluid volume deficit following lumbar spinal surgery. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication the client is at risk for fluid volume deficit?
- A. Surgical drain output 300 mL during an 8-hr shift
- B. Bounding peripheral pulses
- C. Neck vein distention
- D. Weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in 24 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Surgical drain output 300 mL during an 8-hr shift. This finding indicates potential fluid loss, which can lead to fluid volume deficit. Surgical drain output is a direct measure of fluid loss from the body and can help assess the client's fluid status. Bounding peripheral pulses (B) and neck vein distention (C) are signs of fluid volume excess, not deficit. Weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lb) in 24 hours (D) suggests fluid retention, not deficit.
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a lump in their right breast. Which of the following findings increases the clients risk of developing breast cancer?
- A. Daily caffeine consumption
- B. A history of seasonal allergies
- C. Oral contraceptives were taken for the last 6 years
- D. Routine use of multivitamins
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oral contraceptives were taken for the last 6 years. Long-term use of oral contraceptives has been associated with a slightly increased risk of developing breast cancer. Estrogen and progesterone in oral contraceptives can stimulate the growth of breast tissue, potentially leading to cancer over time. Daily caffeine consumption (choice A) and a history of seasonal allergies (choice B) do not have a direct correlation with an increased risk of breast cancer. Routine use of multivitamins (choice D) is generally not linked to an increased risk of breast cancer.
A nurse is caring for a client who had a surgical repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm 3 days ago. The clients vital signs are: temperature 38.3° C (100.9° F), heart rate 80/min, respirations 16/min, and blood pressure 128/76 mm Hg. Which of the following actions is the nurses priority?
- A. Administer an antipyretic for the fever.
- B. Encourage the client to ambulate.
- C. Assess the surgical incision for signs of infection.
- D. Increase IV fluid administration.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assess the surgical incision for signs of infection. This is the priority because the client has a fever (indicating possible infection) post-surgery, putting them at risk for complications. Assessing the surgical incision allows for early detection of infection, prompt treatment, and prevention of further complications. Administering an antipyretic (choice A) only addresses the symptom but not the underlying cause. Encouraging ambulation (choice B) and increasing IV fluids (choice D) are important but assessing for infection takes precedence due to the potential severity of an infected surgical site.