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A nurse is caring for a client who has gastroenteritis. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as an indication that the client is experiencing dehydration?
- A. Distended jugular veins.
- B. Increased blood pressure.
- C. Decreased blood pressure.
- D. Pitting, dependent edema.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased blood pressure. Dehydration leads to a decrease in blood volume, causing a drop in blood pressure. As a result, the body tries to conserve fluids, leading to decreased urine output and concentrated urine. Distended jugular veins (A) are more indicative of heart failure. Increased blood pressure (B) is not typically associated with dehydration. Pitting, dependent edema (D) is a sign of fluid overload, not dehydration.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following an endoscopy with moderate (conscious) sedation. Which of the following assessment findings is the nurse's priority?
- A. Gag reflex
- B. Warmth of extremities
- C. Temperature
- D. Level of pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gag reflex. The priority assessment for a client post-endoscopy with sedation is to ensure their airway is intact. The presence of a gag reflex indicates the airway protection mechanism is functional, reducing the risk of aspiration. Monitoring warmth of extremities, temperature, and pain level are important but secondary assessments compared to airway patency. Ensuring the client's safety and preventing respiratory compromise take precedence in this situation.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has a new diagnosis of Graves' disease. The nurse should anticipate which of the following laboratory values to be elevated?
- A. Trisodothyronine 3
- B. Phosphorus
- C. Calcium
- D. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trisodothyronine 3. In Graves' disease, there is excessive production of thyroid hormones, including triiodothyronine (T3). Elevated T3 levels are common in hyperthyroidism, which is a hallmark of Graves' disease. T3 is the active form of thyroid hormone and is responsible for regulating metabolism. Phosphorus, calcium, and thyroid-stimulating hormone levels are typically not elevated in Graves' disease. Phosphorus and calcium are more related to bone health and are usually within normal limits unless complications arise. Thyroid-stimulating hormone levels are usually suppressed in hyperthyroidism, including Graves' disease.
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for warfarin about foods that affect the INR. The nurse should include in the teaching that which of the following foods interact with this medication?
- A. Orange juice.
- B. Kale.
- C. Beef stew.
- D. Yogurt.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Kale. Kale is high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the anticoagulant effects of warfarin by increasing the clotting factors in the blood, leading to a decreased INR. It is important for patients on warfarin to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods to ensure their INR remains within the therapeutic range. Orange juice (A), beef stew (C), and yogurt (D) do not significantly interact with warfarin. A summary of why they are incorrect: Orange juice does not have a direct interaction with warfarin. Beef stew does not contain significant amounts of vitamin K. Yogurt is not a high vitamin K food.
A nurse on an intensive care unit is planning care for a client who has increased intracranial pressure following a head injury. Which of the following IV medications should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Propranolol
- B. Dobutamine
- C. Mannitol
- D. Chlorpromazine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that helps reduce intracranial pressure by drawing fluid out of brain tissues. It is commonly used in the management of increased intracranial pressure in clients with head injuries. Propranolol (A) is a beta-blocker used for hypertension and anxiety, not for reducing intracranial pressure. Dobutamine (B) is a beta-1 agonist used for cardiac support, not for managing intracranial pressure. Chlorpromazine (D) is an antipsychotic medication and is not indicated for reducing intracranial pressure.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a herniated disc and is scheduled for a peripheral nerve block. The client tells the nurse, 'I am afraid to have this procedure.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Are you afraid of needles that will be used during the procedure?
- B. After this procedure
- C. you will feel much better.
- D. Tell me why you are scared to have this procedure.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The correct response is D because it demonstrates active listening and empathy by encouraging the client to express their fears. By asking the client to elaborate on their fears, the nurse can address specific concerns and provide appropriate support. This promotes trust and open communication between the nurse and client, leading to better outcomes.
Incorrect Responses:
A: This response assumes the fear is related to needles and does not address the client's specific concerns about the procedure.
B: This response is incomplete and does not acknowledge the client's fear.
C: This response minimizes the client's feelings and does not address the underlying fear.
Overall, these responses fail to address the client's emotional needs and may not effectively alleviate their fear or anxiety.