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A nurse is caring for a client who has had a spinal cord injury at the level of the T2-T3 vertebrae. When planning care, the nurse should anticipate which of the following types of disability?
- A. Paraplegia
- B. Tetraplegia
- C. Quadriplegia
- D. Hemiplegia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Paraplegia. Damage at the T2-T3 vertebrae level affects the lower part of the body, resulting in paralysis of the legs and potentially part of the trunk (paraplegia). This injury does not affect the arms or hands, ruling out tetraplegia (B) and quadriplegia (C). Hemiplegia (D) refers to paralysis on one side of the body only, which is not the case here. Other choices are not applicable.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has myelosuppression after receiving chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Bleeding from the gums
- B. Chest pain
- C. Fatigue
- D. Severe headache
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding from the gums. Myelosuppression leads to decreased production of blood cells, including platelets, which are essential for clotting. Bleeding from the gums is a common sign of thrombocytopenia, a condition where there are low platelet levels. Chest pain, fatigue, and severe headache are not directly associated with myelosuppression. Monitoring for bleeding tendencies is crucial in clients with myelosuppression to prevent complications like hemorrhage.
A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV. Which of the following laboratory values is the nurse's priority?
- A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- B. Platelet count of 350,000/mm3
- C. CD4-T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
- D. White blood cell count of 10,000/mm3
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: CD4-T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. In HIV care, monitoring the CD4-T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the immune system's ability to fight infections. A low CD4 count indicates a weakened immune system, increasing the client's susceptibility to opportunistic infections. This value guides treatment decisions, such as initiating antiretroviral therapy. The other options, while important, do not directly reflect the client's immune status in the context of HIV. Hemoglobin and platelet counts are relevant for assessing anemia and clotting function, respectively. White blood cell count is a general indicator of infection or inflammation. Prioritizing CD4-T-cell count ensures appropriate management of HIV and prevention of complications.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is postoperative following coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery and is receiving opioid medications to manage discomfort. Aside from managing pain, which of the following desired effects of medications should the nurse identify as most important for the client's recovery?
- A. It facilitates the client's deep breathing
- B. It increases the client's appetite
- C. It promotes wound healing
- D. It decreases the client's anxiety
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It facilitates the client's deep breathing. Postoperative clients following CABG surgery are at risk for developing atelectasis due to decreased lung expansion. Opioid medications can cause respiratory depression, leading to shallow breathing. By facilitating deep breathing, the nurse helps prevent atelectasis and promotes optimal oxygenation, aiding in the client's recovery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to the immediate physiological needs of a postoperative CABG client. Increasing appetite, promoting wound healing, and decreasing anxiety are important aspects of overall recovery but are not as critical as ensuring proper oxygenation and preventing respiratory complications in the immediate postoperative period.
A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a history of recurring calcium oxalate kidney stones. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Increase calcium intake
- B. Avoid foods high in potassium
- C. Drink 3 L of fluid every day
- D. Limit vitamin C intake
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drink 3 L of fluid every day. Adequate fluid intake helps to dilute urine, reducing the concentration of calcium and oxalate, which are the main components of kidney stones. This instruction can help prevent the formation of new stones. Increasing calcium intake (Choice A) may actually be beneficial as it can bind with oxalate in the intestines, reducing its absorption and subsequent excretion in the urine. Avoiding foods high in potassium (Choice B) is not directly related to preventing calcium oxalate stones. Limiting vitamin C intake (Choice D) is not necessary unless the client is taking excessive amounts of vitamin C supplements, which can increase oxalate levels.
A nurse is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses on effective techniques for counseling clients about sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Ask about the client's exposure to any past or present STIs.
- B. Advise clients not to disclose their sexual history.
- C. Focus only on present symptoms of STIs.
- D. Only ask about high-risk behavior.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because asking about the client's exposure to any past or present STIs is crucial for effective counseling. Understanding the client's history helps in assessing risk factors, determining appropriate interventions, and providing tailored education. It also promotes trust and open communication.
Choice B is incorrect as advising clients not to disclose their sexual history hinders the nurse's ability to provide comprehensive care and support. Choice C is incorrect because focusing only on present symptoms may overlook important information needed for proper assessment and management. Choice D is incorrect as only asking about high-risk behavior limits the scope of the assessment and may miss potential risk factors.