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A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is experiencing atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse plan to monitor for and report to the provider immediately?
- A. Irregular pulse.
- B. Persistent fatigue.
- C. Dependent edema.
- D. Slurred speech.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Slurred speech. Slurred speech can be a sign of a potential stroke, which can occur in patients with atrial fibrillation due to the risk of blood clots forming in the heart. This finding should be reported immediately to the provider for further evaluation and intervention to prevent further complications. Monitoring for slurred speech helps in early detection and prompt management of a potential stroke.
Other choices such as A: Irregular pulse, B: Persistent fatigue, and C: Dependent edema are common in patients with heart failure and atrial fibrillation but are not immediate concerns requiring urgent intervention like slurred speech indicating a potential stroke.
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A nurse in a clinic is caring for a female client who has a new diagnosis of acne vulgaris on her cheeks. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?
- A. Use friction when washing the affected area.
- B. Use a new cosmetic pad with each limited application of makeup.
- C. Use an oil-based soap to wash affected areas daily.
- D. Express the larger comedones periodically.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Use a new cosmetic pad with each limited application of makeup. This is important to prevent the spread of bacteria and reduce the risk of exacerbating acne. Using a new pad each time helps to avoid introducing more bacteria to the skin. Choice A is incorrect because friction can irritate the skin and worsen acne. Choice C is incorrect as oil-based soap can clog pores and worsen acne. Choice D is incorrect because expressing comedones can lead to scarring and infection. It's crucial to provide accurate and evidence-based information to clients to promote effective management of their condition.
A nurse is talking with a client who has cholelithiasis and is about to undergo an oral cholangiogram. Which of the following client statements indicates to the nurse understanding of the procedure?
- A. Soon those shock waves will get rid of my gallstones.
- B. I’ll have a camera put down my throat so they can see my gallbladder.
- C. They are going to use dye to examine my gallbladder and ducts.
- D. They’ll put medication into my gallbladder to dissolve the stones.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's statement indicates an understanding of the procedure. Oral cholangiogram involves injecting dye to visualize the gallbladder and ducts. Choice A is incorrect as shock waves are used in lithotripsy, not oral cholangiogram. Choice B is incorrect as the procedure involves dye, not a camera down the throat. Choice D is incorrect as medication is not used in this procedure.
A nurse is assessing a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess the posterior tibial pulse? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Palpate the area behind the ankle bone.
- B. Use the pads of the fingers to feel for the pulse.
- C. Compare the pulse strength with the other leg.
- D. Assess for any swelling or tenderness.
Correct Answer: A,B,C
Rationale: The correct actions to assess the posterior tibial pulse are A, B, and C. A: Palpating the area behind the ankle bone locates the posterior tibial pulse accurately. B: Using the pads of the fingers helps to detect the pulse's strength and regularity. C: Comparing pulse strength with the other leg enables the nurse to identify any discrepancies. D: Assessing for swelling or tenderness is not directly related to locating the pulse. Therefore, choices D, E, F, and G are incorrect for assessing the posterior tibial pulse.
A nurse is admitting a client who has sustained severe burn injuries in a grease fire. Using the Rule of Nines, the nurse should estimate that the client has burned the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.
Correct Answer: 72
Rationale: The Rule of Nines is a method used to estimate the total body surface area (TBSA) burned in a patient with severe burns. According to this rule, each major body part represents a specific percentage of the TBSA. In an adult, the head accounts for 9%, each upper extremity is 9% (18% total), the front of the trunk is 18%, the back of the trunk is 18%, each lower extremity is 18% (36% total), and the genital area is 1%. Therefore, if a client has sustained severe burn injuries in a grease fire, the nurse should estimate that the client has burned approximately 72% of their TBSA. This calculation is crucial in determining the severity of the burns and guiding appropriate treatment. The correct answer is 72 because it reflects the accurate estimation of the TBSA burned using the Rule of Nines. The other choices are incorrect as they do not align with the standard percentages
A client diagnosed with diverticulitis has been experiencing episodes of gastrointestinal cramping. The nurse should tell the client to maintain which type of diet during the asymptomatic period?
- A. High in carbohydrates.
- B. High in fiber.
- C. Low in residue.
- D. Low in fat.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: High in fiber. During the asymptomatic period of diverticulitis, a high-fiber diet helps prevent diverticula formation and reduces the risk of diverticulitis flare-ups by promoting regular bowel movements and preventing constipation. Fiber also helps maintain healthy gut flora. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as high carbohydrates may worsen symptoms, low residue may lead to constipation, and low fat is not directly related to diverticulitis management.