Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who has poison ivy and is prescribed diphenhydramine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse give regarding the adverse effect of dry mouth associated with diphenhydramine?
- A. Administer the medication with food.
- B. Chew on sugarless gum or suck on hard candies.
- C. Place a humidifier at your bedside every evening.
- D. Discontinue the medication and notify your provider.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chew on sugarless gum or suck on hard candies. Diphenhydramine commonly causes dry mouth as a side effect due to its anticholinergic properties. Chewing on sugarless gum or sucking on hard candies stimulates saliva production, helping to alleviate dry mouth. Administering the medication with food (choice A) is not directly related to treating dry mouth. Placing a humidifier at the bedside (choice C) may help with dry throat but not specifically dry mouth caused by diphenhydramine. Discontinuing the medication (choice D) without consulting the provider is not recommended as it may lead to worsening symptoms or potential withdrawal effects.
You may also like to solve these questions
The nurse is caring for a client prescribed digoxin to help manage heart failure. Which manifestations correlate with a digoxin level of 2.3 ng/dL? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Increased appetite.
- B. Nausea.
- C. Increased energy level.
- D. Seeing halos around bright objects.
- E. Photophobia.
Correct Answer: B,D,E
Rationale: The correct manifestations correlating with a digoxin level of 2.3 ng/dL are Nausea, Seeing halos around bright objects, and Photophobia. Nausea is a common side effect of digoxin toxicity. Seeing halos around bright objects is a sign of visual disturbances associated with digoxin toxicity. Photophobia is sensitivity to light, which can occur with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite and energy levels are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity and are therefore incorrect choices.
A client diagnosed with diverticulitis has been experiencing episodes of gastrointestinal cramping. The nurse should tell the client to maintain which type of diet during the asymptomatic period?
- A. High in carbohydrates.
- B. High in fiber.
- C. Low in residue.
- D. Low in fat.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: High in fiber. During the asymptomatic period of diverticulitis, a high-fiber diet helps prevent diverticula formation and reduces the risk of diverticulitis flare-ups by promoting regular bowel movements and preventing constipation. Fiber also helps maintain healthy gut flora. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as high carbohydrates may worsen symptoms, low residue may lead to constipation, and low fat is not directly related to diverticulitis management.
A nurse is caring for a client who sustained a femur fracture in an automobile accident and is placed into skin traction. The nurse may remove the weights from the traction device if which of the following occurs?
- A. The client develops a life-threatening situation.
- B. The client has to be repositioned in the bed.
- C. The client complains of pain.
- D. The client needs to have an x-ray of the femur performed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client develops a life-threatening situation. In this scenario, the nurse can remove the weights from the traction device to address the life-threatening situation promptly. Removing the weights in such a situation takes precedence over other concerns like repositioning, pain complaints, or even the need for an x-ray. Life-threatening situations must always be prioritized in patient care to ensure their safety and well-being. It is crucial for the nurse to act swiftly and appropriately in such emergencies to provide the necessary care and support to the client.
A nurse is assessing a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Unilateral joint involvement.
- B. Ulnar deviation.
- C. Decreased sedimentation rate.
- D. Fractures of the spine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ulnar deviation. In rheumatoid arthritis, ulnar deviation of the fingers is a common finding due to inflammation and destruction of the joints. This deformity leads to the fingers deviating towards the ulnar side of the hand. This is a characteristic feature seen in rheumatoid arthritis and is caused by the inflammation affecting the joints. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A: Unilateral joint involvement is not typical of rheumatoid arthritis, as it usually affects multiple joints symmetrically. C: Decreased sedimentation rate is not expected in rheumatoid arthritis, as it is typically associated with an elevated sedimentation rate due to inflammation. D: Fractures of the spine are not a common finding in rheumatoid arthritis, as it primarily affects the joints.
A nurse in an emergency department is reviewing the medical record of a client who has an extensive burn injury. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse expect?
- A. Hypervolemia.
- B. Hyperkalemia.
- C. Low hemoglobin.
- D. Metabolic alkalosis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. In extensive burn injuries, there is a significant release of potassium from damaged cells, leading to elevated serum potassium levels. This can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other complications. Hypervolemia (A) is less likely due to fluid shifts, low hemoglobin (C) is not typically seen in the acute phase of burn injuries, and metabolic alkalosis (D) is not a common laboratory finding in this scenario.