Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postpartum and has uterine atony. The client is exhibiting a large amount of vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer betamethasone IM.
- B. Avoid performing sterile vaginal examinations.
- C. Anticipate a prescription for misoprostol.
- D. Obtain a specimen for a Kleihauer-Betke test.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anticipate a prescription for misoprostol. Misoprostol is a medication commonly used to manage postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony. It helps to promote uterine contractions and control bleeding. Administering betamethasone (A) is not indicated in this situation as it is a steroid used for fetal lung maturation. Avoiding sterile vaginal examinations (B) may delay the identification of the cause of bleeding. Obtaining a specimen for a Kleihauer-Betke test (D) is used to determine the amount of fetal-maternal hemorrhage and is not the immediate priority in managing uterine atony.
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A nurse is caring for a client who delivered by cesarean birth 6 hr ago. The nurse notes a steady trickle of vaginal bleeding that does not stop with fundal massage. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Replace the surgical dressing.
- B. Evaluate urinary output.
- C. Apply an ice pack to the incision site.
- D. Administer 500 mL lactated Ringer’s IV bolus.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer 500 mL lactated Ringer’s IV bolus. This action is appropriate as the client is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage, which can lead to hypovolemic shock. Administering IV fluids helps increase circulating volume and stabilize the client's condition. The other choices are incorrect because: A) Replacing the surgical dressing does not address the underlying issue of hemorrhage. B) Evaluating urinary output is important but not the priority when the client is actively bleeding. C) Applying an ice pack to the incision site is not indicated and may not address the hemorrhage. Overall, choice D is the most crucial intervention to address the immediate concern of postpartum hemorrhage.
A nurse is caring for a client who reports spontaneous rupture of membranes. The nurse observes fetal bradycardia on the FHR tracing and notices that the umbilical cord is protruding. After calling for assistance and notifying the provider, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Perform a vaginal examination by applying upward pressure on the presenting part.
- B. Cover the umbilical cord with a sterile saline-saturated towel.
- C. Administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask at 8 L/min.
- D. Initiate an infusion of IV fluids for the client.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Cover the umbilical cord with a sterile saline-saturated towel.
Rationale: Protruding umbilical cord is a medical emergency that can lead to cord compression and compromise blood flow to the baby, resulting in fetal distress. Covering the cord with a sterile saline-saturated towel helps to prevent cord compression and maintain blood flow until delivery can be expedited. This action ensures the baby continues to receive oxygen and nutrients.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Performing a vaginal examination could further compress the cord and worsen the situation.
C: Administering oxygen may be beneficial for the mother but does not address the immediate risk to the baby from cord compression.
D: Initiating an IV infusion is important but does not address the urgent need to protect the umbilical cord.
E, F, G: No information provided.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor with a fetus in the occipitoposterior position. The nurse assists the client into a hands-and-knees position. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to evaluate the effectiveness of this intervention?
- A. Does that lessen your suprapubic pain?
- B. Are you feeling relief from your pelvic pressure?
- C. Do your contractions feel further apart?
- D. Has your back labor improved?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is D. In the occipitoposterior position, the fetus's head is pressing against the mother's sacrum, causing intense back pain known as back labor. By asking if the back labor has improved, the nurse can assess if the hands-and-knees position has helped relieve the pressure on the mother's sacrum, indicating effectiveness.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Suprapubic pain is not directly related to the occipitoposterior position or the hands-and-knees position.
B: Pelvic pressure may not necessarily be alleviated by changing positions in occipitoposterior position.
C: Contractions feeling further apart may not directly correlate with the effectiveness of the hands-and-knees position for back labor relief.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation and has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Thick, white vaginal discharge
- B. Urinary frequency
- C. Vulva lesions
- D. Malodorous discharge
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Malodorous discharge. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite, leading to a characteristic foul-smelling vaginal discharge. This discharge is typically greenish-yellow, frothy, and may be accompanied by itching or irritation. Thick, white discharge (choice A) is more indicative of a yeast infection. Urinary frequency (choice B) is not a common symptom of trichomoniasis. Vulva lesions (choice C) are more likely to be seen in other infections or conditions. Therefore, the malodorous discharge is the most specific finding associated with trichomoniasis at 20 weeks of gestation.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 48 hr postpartum and has a deep vein thrombosis.
- A. Increased warmth in the extremity
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Leukocytosis
- D. Scant lochia rubra
- E. Decreased extremity edema
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Correct Answer:
Rationale:
1. Increased warmth in the extremity: This is a key finding in deep vein thrombosis indicating inflammation and potential clot progression.
2. Tachycardia: Indicative of the body's response to a clot, signifying a worsening condition.
3. Leukocytosis: Elevated white blood cell count suggests an inflammatory response, further confirming a worsening condition.
Summary:
- Scant lochia rubra: Not directly related to deep vein thrombosis, less relevant in this context.
- Decreased extremity edema: While it could indicate improvement, it is not specific to deep vein thrombosis and may not be a reliable indicator.