Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hr postpartum and has uterine atony. The client is exhibiting a large amount of vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer betamethasone IM.
- B. Avoid performing sterile vaginal examinations.
- C. Anticipate a prescription for misoprostol.
- D. Obtain a specimen for a Kleihauer-Betke test.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C, anticipating a prescription for misoprostol, is correct. Misoprostol helps to contract the uterus and control bleeding in cases of uterine atony postpartum. Administering betamethasone (A) is used for fetal lung development, not for uterine atony. Avoiding sterile vaginal exams (B) is not helpful in managing uterine atony. Obtaining a specimen for a Kleihauer-Betke test (D) is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not to manage uterine atony.
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A nurse in a provider’s office is caring for a 20-year-old client who is at 12 weeks of gestation and requests an amniocentesis to determine the sex of the fetus. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. You cannot have an amniocentesis until you are at least 35 years of age.
- B. This procedure determines if your baby has genetic or congenital disorders.
- C. Your provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling to determine the sex of your baby.
- D. We can schedule the procedure for later today if you’d like.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: This procedure determines if your baby has genetic or congenital disorders. At 12 weeks of gestation, amniocentesis is typically not done to determine the sex of the fetus but rather to identify genetic abnormalities or congenital disorders. Providing this information allows the client to make informed decisions about their pregnancy and potential interventions.
A: You cannot have an amniocentesis until you are at least 35 years of age - This statement is incorrect as age alone is not the sole criteria for recommending amniocentesis.
C: Your provider will schedule a chorionic villus sampling to determine the sex of your baby - Chorionic villus sampling is also not typically done to determine the sex of the fetus.
D: We can schedule the procedure for later today if you’d like - This is incorrect as scheduling an amniocentesis without a medical indication is not appropriate.
A nurse is admitting a client to the birthing unit who reports her contractions started 1 hr ago. The nurse determines the client is 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated. The nurse realizes that the client is at risk for which of the following conditions?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
- C. Incompetent cervix
- D. Postpartum hemorrhage
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum hemorrhage. The client being 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated indicates she is in active labor, not at risk for ectopic pregnancy (A). Hyperemesis gravidarum (B) is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, unrelated to cervical dilation. Incompetent cervix (C) is characterized by painless cervical dilation in the second trimester. Postpartum hemorrhage (D) is a risk due to the advanced cervical dilation and effacement, making it more likely for excessive bleeding during and after delivery.
A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 16 hr old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Acrocyanosis
- C. Overlapping suture lines
- D. Head circumference 33 cm (13 in)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Substernal retractions. Substernal retractions in a newborn may indicate respiratory distress, which requires immediate attention from the provider to prevent further complications. Acrocyanosis (choice B) is a common finding in newborns and is considered normal. Overlapping suture lines (choice C) can be a result of molding during the birth process and typically resolve on their own. A head circumference of 33 cm (13 in) (choice D) falls within the normal range for a newborn and does not require immediate reporting.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for an amniocentesis. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should empty my bladder before the procedure.
- B. I will be lying on my side during the procedure.
- C. I will be asleep during the procedure.
- D. I should start fasting 24 hours before the procedure.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I should empty my bladder before the procedure." This statement indicates understanding because a full bladder can obstruct visualization during the amniocentesis. Choice B is incorrect because the client should be lying flat on their back during the procedure. Choice C is incorrect as local anesthesia is typically used, and the client is awake. Choice D is incorrect as fasting is not required for an amniocentesis.
A nurse is caring for a newborn who was transferred to the nursery 30 min after birth because of mild respiratory distress. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Confirm the newborn's Apgar score.
- B. Verify the newborn's identification.
- C. Administer vitamin K to the newborn.
- D. Determine obstetrical risk factors.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Verify the newborn's identification. This should be the first action taken because ensuring the correct identification of the newborn is crucial for providing appropriate care. Incorrect identification could lead to serious consequences, such as administering medications or treatments to the wrong infant. Confirming the newborn's Apgar score (choice A) or administering vitamin K (choice C) can wait until the identification is verified. Determining obstetrical risk factors (choice D) is important but not the immediate priority.