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A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 hr postoperative and exhibiting signs of hypovolemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of hypovolemia?
- A. Rapid pulse rate
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rapid pulse rate. Following surgery, hypovolemia can occur due to fluid loss. A rapid pulse rate is a common manifestation of hypovolemia as the body compensates for decreased blood volume by increasing heart rate to maintain perfusion. Bradycardia (B) is unlikely with hypovolemia as the body tries to increase cardiac output. Hypertension (C) is not typical in hypovolemia as blood pressure tends to decrease. Peripheral edema (D) is associated with fluid overload, not hypovolemia.
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A nurse is assessing a client who has Cushings syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Osteoporosis
- B. Hypertension
- C. Weight loss
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Osteoporosis. In Cushing's syndrome, excess cortisol weakens bones, leading to osteoporosis. B: Hypertension is common in Cushing's due to cortisol's effects on blood vessels. C: Weight gain, not loss, is typically seen in Cushing's due to cortisol-induced fat redistribution. D: Hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia, is common due to cortisol's role in glucose metabolism. E, F, G are irrelevant. In summary, osteoporosis is expected due to cortisol's impact on bone health, while the other options are not typical findings in Cushing's syndrome.
A nurse is assessing a client who takes salmeterol to treat moderate asthma. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication has been effective?
- A. The client has decreased mucus production.
- B. The clients daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) measures 85% above personal best.
- C. The client has a respiratory rate of 24/min.
- D. The client reports no nighttime coughing.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an increase in the client's daily peak expiratory flow (PEF) by 85% above their personal best indicates improved lung function, which is a positive response to salmeterol. This demonstrates that the medication is effectively managing the asthma symptoms.
Choice A is incorrect because decreased mucus production is not a direct indicator of salmeterol's effectiveness in treating asthma. Choice C is incorrect as the respiratory rate alone does not provide specific information about the medication's effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect since the absence of nighttime coughing may be due to various factors and not solely because of salmeterol's effectiveness.
A nurse is caring for a client who is hemorrhaging and hypotensive from esophageal variceal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer a vasopressor.
- B. Verify that the client has adequate IV access.
- C. Place the client in the Trendelenburg position.
- D. Prepare for endoscopic intervention.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Verify that the client has adequate IV access. This is the priority action because the client is hypotensive from hemorrhaging, indicating a need for immediate fluid resuscitation to stabilize their condition. Without adequate IV access, the nurse cannot administer life-saving fluids and medications. Administering a vasopressor (A) or preparing for endoscopic intervention (D) may be necessary later but addressing the hypotension is the priority. Placing the client in Trendelenburg position (C) is not recommended as it can increase intracranial pressure.
A nurse is caring for a client immediately following intubation with an endotracheal (ET) tube. Which of the following methods should the nurse identify as the most reliable for verifying placement of the ET tube?
- A. Observing for symmetrical chest rise and fall
- B. Auscultating bilateral breath sounds
- C. Using an end-tidal COâ‚‚ detector
- D. Checking for condensation in the ET tube
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Using an end-tidal CO2 detector. This method is the most reliable for verifying ET tube placement because it directly measures the presence of CO2 in exhaled breath, confirming that the tube is in the trachea. This is crucial to prevent inadvertent esophageal intubation. Observing for symmetrical chest rise and fall (A) can be misleading as it can occur even with esophageal intubation. Auscultating bilateral breath sounds (B) can also be unreliable as breath sounds may be heard even if the tube is in the esophagus. Checking for condensation in the ET tube (D) is not a reliable method for verifying placement as condensation can occur regardless of tube placement.
A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis and is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. The clients weight is 80 kg (176.4 lb). Using the client information provided, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Increase the infusion rate.
- B. Administer protamine sulfate immediately.
- C. Stop the heparin infusion for 1 hr.
- D. Decrease the heparin dose.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop the heparin infusion for 1 hr. This is because the client's weight is crucial in determining the appropriate heparin dosage. Heparin is usually dosed based on the client's weight to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. In this case, the client's weight of 80 kg indicates a specific dose range for heparin. Stopping the infusion for 1 hour allows the nurse to reassess the client's condition and potentially adjust the heparin dosage to ensure it is safe and effective.
A: Increasing the infusion rate without proper assessment can lead to overdose and increased risk of bleeding.
B: Administering protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose, not indicated in this scenario.
D: Decreasing the heparin dose without assessment may result in inadequate anticoagulation and increased risk of clot formation.