Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin alteplase therapy to treat pulmonary embolism. Which of the following drugs should the nurse have available in the event of a severe adverse reaction?
- A. Vitamin K
- B. Aminocaproic acid
- C. Protamine
- D. Deferoxamine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Aminocaproic acid is used to manage bleeding complications associated with thrombolytic therapy, like alteplase. In case of severe adverse reaction such as uncontrolled bleeding, aminocaproic acid can help by inhibiting fibrinolysis. Vitamin K (A) is not used for this purpose. Protamine (C) is used to reverse heparin anticoagulation, not for thrombolytic therapy. Deferoxamine (D) is used for iron toxicity, not related to thrombolytic therapy. Thus, having aminocaproic acid available is crucial for managing potential adverse reactions during alteplase therapy.
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An older adult patient is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells after being injured in a car accident. On assessment, the nurse notes a new finding of bounding pulse, crackles, and increasing dyspnea. What should the nurse do first, after stopping the transfusion?
- A. Assess vital signs.
- B. Raise the head of the bed.
- C. Encourage the patient to deep breathe and cough.
- D. Administer pm diphenhydramine (Benadryl) as ordered.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Raise the head of the bed. After stopping the transfusion due to signs of fluid overload, the priority is to alleviate symptoms and improve respiratory function. Elevating the head of the bed helps reduce venous return, decreasing preload and cardiac workload, which can help manage symptoms like dyspnea and crackles. This action promotes better oxygenation and reduces the risk of complications like pulmonary edema. Assessing vital signs (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing (Choice C) may exacerbate respiratory distress in this situation. Administering diphenhydramine (Choice D) is not indicated for fluid overload.
Non thrombocytopenic purpura is seen in all except:
- A. vasculitis
- B. uraemia
- C. hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
- D. SLE
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: SLE. Non-thrombocytopenic purpura is characterized by skin bleeding without low platelet count. SLE does not typically cause this type of purpura, as it primarily affects multiple organs through immune complex deposition. Vasculitis, uraemia, and hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia can all lead to non-thrombocytopenic purpura due to various mechanisms involving blood vessel inflammation, kidney dysfunction, or genetic defects in blood vessel formation, respectively.
You receive a phone call that a 3-year-old patient on long-term warfarin therapy for congenital heart disease has an international normalized ratio (INR) of 5.8. On further history, you learn the patient and several family members have had recent gastrointestinal illnesses, but the patient is recovering. His mother reports he is not experiencing bleeding symptoms. Which of the following interventions would be most reasonable in this clinical scenario?
- A. Hold 1 to 2 doses of warfarin and recheck INR
- B. Administer oral vitamin K therapy
- C. Administer fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
- D. Administer recombinant factor VIIa
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold 1 to 2 doses of warfarin and recheck INR. In this scenario, the high INR indicates an increased risk of bleeding due to excess anticoagulation. However, since the patient is asymptomatic and the high INR is likely due to transient factors (gastrointestinal illness), the most appropriate initial step is to temporarily hold warfarin to allow the INR to normalize. Rechecking the INR after holding the doses will guide further management.
Choice B (Administer oral vitamin K therapy) is incorrect because the patient is not experiencing bleeding symptoms and oral vitamin K should be reserved for patients with active bleeding or high INR with bleeding symptoms. Choice C (Administer fresh frozen plasma) is inappropriate as the patient is not actively bleeding and FFP is typically reserved for acute bleeding situations. Choice D (Administer recombinant factor VIIa) is also incorrect as it is reserved for severe bleeding in patients on war
Sickle cell an. Is not complicated by:
- A. papillary necrosis
- B. pancreatitis
- C. osteomyelitis
- D. CHF
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: pancreatitis. Sickle cell anemia does not typically manifest with pancreatitis. The pathophysiology of sickle cell anemia involves sickle-shaped red blood cells leading to vaso-occlusive crises, resulting in complications such as papillary necrosis, osteomyelitis, and congestive heart failure. Pancreatitis is not a common complication of sickle cell anemia due to the absence of significant involvement of the pancreas in the disease process. Therefore, option B is the correct choice, as it does not align with the typical complications seen in sickle cell anemia.
You receive a phone call that a 3-year-old patient on long-term warfarin therapy for congenital heart disease has an international normalized ratio (INR) of 5.8. On further history, you learn the patient and several family members have had recent gastrointestinal illnesses, but the patient is recovering. His mother reports he is not experiencing bleeding symptoms. Which of the following interventions would be most reasonable in this clinical scenario?
- A. Hold 1 to 2 doses of warfarin and recheck INR
- B. Administer oral vitamin K therapy
- C. Administer fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
- D. Administer recombinant factor VIIa
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold 1 to 2 doses of warfarin and recheck INR. In this scenario, the patient's elevated INR of 5.8 indicates an increased risk of bleeding due to excessive anticoagulation. Since the patient is not experiencing bleeding symptoms and is recovering from gastrointestinal illness, temporarily holding 1 to 2 doses of warfarin is the most reasonable intervention to prevent bleeding complications while allowing the INR to normalize. Rechecking the INR after holding the doses will help assess the patient's response to the intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because administering oral vitamin K therapy, FFP, or recombinant factor VIIa are more aggressive interventions that are not warranted in this case where the patient is asymptomatic and recovering from a transient illness.