Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation and has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Thick, white vaginal discharge
- B. Urinary frequency
- C. Vulva lesions
- D. Malodorous discharge
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Malodorous discharge. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite, leading to a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. At 20 weeks of gestation, the nurse should expect this symptom due to the infection. Thick, white vaginal discharge (choice A) is more indicative of a yeast infection. Urinary frequency (choice B) is not typically associated with trichomoniasis. Vulva lesions (choice C) are more commonly seen in herpes infection. Therefore, the malodorous discharge (choice D) aligns with the expected finding in a client with trichomoniasis at 20 weeks of gestation.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers on a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation. Identify the sequence of actions the nurse should take.
- A. Instruct the client to empty their bladder.
- B. Position the client supine with knees flexed and place a small, rolled towel under one of their hips.
- C. Palpate the fetal part positioned in the fundus.
- D. Palpate the fetal parts along both sides of the uterus.
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: The correct order for performing Leopold maneuvers on a client at 36 weeks gestation is A, B, C, D. Firstly, instructing the client to empty their bladder (A) allows for better visualization and palpation of the fetus. Secondly, positioning the client supine with knees flexed and placing a small, rolled towel under one hip (B) helps relax the abdominal muscles and provides easier access to the uterus. Next, palpating the fetal part positioned in the fundus (C) helps determine the fetal presentation and position. Finally, palpating the fetal parts along both sides of the uterus (D) allows for further assessment of the fetal position and presentation. Choices E, F, and G are incorrect as they do not align with the sequential steps required for conducting Leopold maneuvers effectively.
A nurse is admitting a client to the birthing unit who reports her contractions started 1 hr ago. The nurse determines the client is 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated. The nurse realizes that the client is at risk for which of the following conditions?
- A. Ectopic pregnancy
- B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
- C. Incompetent cervix
- D. Postpartum hemorrhage
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Postpartum hemorrhage. The client being 80% effaced and 8 cm dilated indicates she is in active labor, not experiencing an ectopic pregnancy, hyperemesis gravidarum, or incompetent cervix. Postpartum hemorrhage is a potential risk due to the advanced stage of labor, increasing the likelihood of excessive bleeding post-delivery. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client closely for signs of hemorrhage and be prepared to intervene promptly to prevent complications.
A nurse is reviewing the prescriptions for a client who is pregnant and is taking digoxin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to best evaluate the client’s medication adherence?
- A. Ask the client if they are taking the medication as prescribed.
- B. Assess the client’s kidney function.
- C. Determine the client’s apical pulse rate.
- D. Check the client’s serum medication level.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Check the client’s serum medication level. This is the best way to evaluate medication adherence for a client taking digoxin during pregnancy. Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range, and monitoring the serum level helps ensure the client is taking the medication as prescribed. Option A is not as reliable as self-reporting may not be accurate. Option B, assessing kidney function, is important but not directly related to medication adherence. Option C, determining the apical pulse rate, may indicate the medication's effectiveness but does not confirm adherence. Checking the serum medication level directly assesses the actual drug concentration in the body, providing concrete evidence of adherence.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.
- A. Insert a peripher-all access device, Perform daily fetal movement counts, Prepare client for surgery
- B. Ectopic pregnancy, Hyperemesis gravidarum, Gestational diabetes mellitus
- C. Urine ketones, Kleihauer-Betke values,Serum human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels
Correct Answer:
Rationale: Correct Answer: Action to Take: A, B; Potential Condition: B; Parameter to Monitor: C, E.
Rationale: The potential condition the client is most likely experiencing is ectopic pregnancy. The nurse should insert a peripher-all access device to administer medications and fluids, and perform daily fetal movement counts to monitor fetal well-being. The nurse should monitor urine ketones to assess for dehydration and Kleihauer-Betke values to evaluate for internal bleeding, which are common in ectopic pregnancies. Serum human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels should also be monitored to track the progression of the pregnancy and ensure appropriate management.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an epidural block with an opioid analgesic. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Bilateral crackles
- C. Hypotension
- D. Polyuria
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C (Hypotension)
Rationale: Opioid analgesics can cause vasodilation leading to hypotension. The epidural route can potentiate this effect due to direct spinal cord vasodilation. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent adverse outcomes such as decreased perfusion.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Hyperglycemia - Opioid analgesics typically do not cause hyperglycemia.
B: Bilateral crackles - Crackles are indicative of fluid accumulation in the lungs, not a typical adverse effect of opioid analgesics.
D: Polyuria - Opioid analgesics do not commonly cause increased urine output.