Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following types of isolation precautions should the nurse initiate?
- A. Droplet
- B. Contact
- C. Protective environment
- D. Airborne
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contact precautions. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is primarily spread through direct contact with contaminated skin or surfaces. Contact precautions involve wearing gloves and gowns when in contact with the client or the client's environment to prevent the spread of the infection. Droplet precautions are used for infections transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Protective environment precautions are for immunocompromised clients. Airborne precautions are for infections transmitted through small droplets that stay in the air for long periods, such as tuberculosis. Therefore, the most appropriate precaution for a client with MRSA at 36 weeks of gestation is contact precautions to prevent transmission of the infection through direct contact.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who had a vaginal delivery 3 hr ago. Which of the following findings place the client at risk for postpartum hemorrhage? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Labor induction with oxytocin
- B. Newborn weight 2.948 kg (6 lb 8 oz)
- C. Vacuum-assisted delivery
- D. History of uterine atony
- E. History of human papillomavirus
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: The correct answers are A, C, and D.
A: Labor induction with oxytocin can lead to uterine hyperstimulation, increasing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
C: Vacuum-assisted delivery can cause trauma to the birth canal, leading to increased bleeding.
D: History of uterine atony indicates a potential inability of the uterus to contract effectively, increasing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage.
B: Newborn weight and history of human papillomavirus are not directly related to postpartum hemorrhage.
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor with a fetus in the occipitoposterior position. The nurse assists the client into a hands-and-knees position. Which of the following questions should the nurse ask to evaluate the effectiveness of this intervention?
- A. Does that lessen your suprapubic pain?
- B. Are you feeling relief from your pelvic pressure?
- C. Do your contractions feel further apart?
- D. Has your back labor improved?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Has your back labor improved?" This question is crucial because the occipitoposterior position can cause intense back pain during labor. By asking if the back labor has improved, the nurse can assess the effectiveness of the hands-and-knees position in helping relieve the client's discomfort. A: "Does that lessen your suprapubic pain?" is incorrect because suprapubic pain is not specifically associated with occipitoposterior positioning. B: "Are you feeling relief from your pelvic pressure?" is incorrect as it does not directly address the back pain associated with occipitoposterior positioning. C: "Do your contractions feel further apart?" is incorrect as it does not focus on the back pain issue. The key is to address the specific discomfort caused by the occipitoposterior position.
A nurse is teaching a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for a nonstress test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. The test should take 10 to 15 minutes to complete.
- B. You will lay in a supine position throughout the test.
- C. You should not eat or drink for 2 hours before the test.
- D. You should press the handheld button when you feel your baby move.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is D because pressing the handheld button when feeling the baby move helps monitor fetal heart rate and movements during the test. This action allows healthcare providers to assess the baby's well-being. Choice A is incorrect as the test duration varies. Choice B is wrong as the client should lay on their left side, not supine, to prevent compression of the vena cava. Choice C is incorrect as eating and drinking are not restricted before the test.
A nurse is caring for a client following an amniocentesis at 18 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a potential complication?
- A. Increased fetal movement
- B. Leakage of fluid from the vagina
- C. Upper abdominal discomfort
- D. Urinary frequency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Leakage of fluid from the vagina
Rationale: Following an amniocentesis at 18 weeks of gestation, leakage of fluid from the vagina could indicate a potential complication such as premature rupture of membranes. This complication could lead to preterm labor and pose a risk to both the mother and the fetus.
Summary of Other Choices:
A: Increased fetal movement - Normal fetal movement is expected following an amniocentesis and does not necessarily indicate a complication.
C: Upper abdominal discomfort - Common after an amniocentesis due to the needle insertion but usually resolves without major issues.
D: Urinary frequency - Not directly related to complications following an amniocentesis at 18 weeks gestation.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation and has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Thick, white vaginal discharge
- B. Urinary frequency
- C. Vulva lesions
- D. Malodorous discharge
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, malodorous discharge. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a parasite, resulting in a foul-smelling, frothy, greenish-yellow vaginal discharge. This discharge is a hallmark symptom of trichomoniasis and is often accompanied by vaginal itching and discomfort. Thick, white discharge (choice A) is more indicative of a yeast infection. Urinary frequency (choice B) is not a typical symptom of trichomoniasis. Vulva lesions (choice C) are more commonly associated with herpes or syphilis. Therefore, based on the client's gestational age and diagnosis, malodorous discharge is the most likely finding.