Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who is hypotensive following the administration of epidural anesthesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Turn the client to a side-lying position.
- B. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
- C. Massage the client’s fundus.
- D. Assist the client to empty their bladder.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Turn the client to a side-lying position. This action helps prevent aortocaval compression, a potential cause of hypotension after epidural anesthesia. When the client is lying on their back, the weight of the uterus can compress the vena cava, reducing venous return and cardiac output, leading to hypotension. Turning the client to a side-lying position relieves this compression, improving blood flow and helping to stabilize blood pressure.
Summary:
B: Applying oxygen may be beneficial in some cases, but it does not directly address the underlying cause of hypotension in this scenario.
C: Massaging the fundus is not indicated for hypotension following epidural anesthesia.
D: Assisting the client to empty their bladder may be important for overall comfort and prevention of complications, but it does not address the hypotension directly.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is assessing a newborn whose mother had gestational diabetes mellitus. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as a manifestation of hypoglycemia?
- A. Abdominal distention
- B. Petechiae
- C. Increased muscle tone
- D. Jitteriness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Jitteriness. In newborns of mothers with gestational diabetes, they are at risk for hypoglycemia due to the sudden drop in glucose levels after birth. Jitteriness is a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns, indicating neurological impairment. Abdominal distention (A) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Petechiae (B) are tiny red or purple spots on the skin and are not specific to hypoglycemia. Increased muscle tone (C) is more commonly seen in conditions like cerebral palsy. Jitteriness (D) is a typical sign of hypoglycemia in newborns and requires prompt attention to prevent further complications.
A nurse is caring for a newborn who was transferred to the nursery 30 min after birth because of mild respiratory distress. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Confirm the newborn's Apgar score.
- B. Verify the newborn's identification.
- C. Administer vitamin K to the newborn.
- D. Determine obstetrical risk factors.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Verify the newborn's identification. This should be the first action taken because ensuring the correct identification of the newborn is crucial for providing appropriate care. Incorrect identification could lead to serious consequences, such as administering medications or treatments to the wrong infant. Confirming the newborn's Apgar score (choice A) or administering vitamin K (choice C) can wait until the identification is verified. Determining obstetrical risk factors (choice D) is important but not the immediate priority.
A nurse on an antepartum unit is caring for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. A client who has gestational diabetes and a fasting blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL (less than 95 mg/dL)
- B. A client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and reports epigastric pain
- C. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and has an Hgb of 10.4 g/dL (11 to 16 g/dL)
- D. A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and reports urinary frequency and dysuria
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and reports epigastric pain. This client should be identified as the priority because epigastric pain in pregnancy can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition that requires immediate attention to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure and protein in the urine, and it can lead to seizures (eclampsia) if not managed promptly. The other clients have issues that are important but not as urgent as potential preeclampsia. Client A's blood glucose level is elevated but not critically high, Client C's hemoglobin level is slightly low but not acutely life-threatening, and Client D's symptoms of urinary frequency and dysuria are common in late pregnancy and do not indicate a medical emergency.
A nurse is caring for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving a continuous infusion of magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Restrict hourly fluid intake to 150 mL/hr.
- B. Have calcium gluconate readily available.
- C. Assess deep tendon reflexes every 6 hr.
- D. Monitor intake and output every 4 hr.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Have calcium gluconate readily available. Magnesium sulfate can lead to magnesium toxicity, causing muscle weakness, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrest. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity, as it antagonizes the effects of magnesium on skeletal muscle and cardiac function. It is essential to have calcium gluconate readily available in case of magnesium toxicity.
Incorrect Choices:
A: Restricting hourly fluid intake is not necessary for a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate IV.
C: Assessing deep tendon reflexes every 6 hours is not the most critical action to take to prevent or manage magnesium toxicity.
D: Monitoring intake and output every 4 hours is important for overall client assessment but is not directly related to managing magnesium toxicity in this scenario.
A nurse is caring for a client who delivered by cesarean birth 6 hr ago. The nurse notes a steady trickle of vaginal bleeding that does not stop with fundal massage. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Replace the surgical dressing.
- B. Evaluate urinary output.
- C. Apply an ice pack to the incision site.
- D. Administer 500 mL lactated Ringer’s IV bolus.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer 500 mL lactated Ringer’s IV bolus. This action is necessary to address the ongoing vaginal bleeding after cesarean birth, which may indicate hypovolemia or postpartum hemorrhage. Administering IV fluids helps to restore circulating volume and maintain adequate perfusion to prevent further complications.
Replacing the surgical dressing (A) does not address the underlying issue of vaginal bleeding. Evaluating urinary output (B) is important for assessing renal function but is not the priority in this situation. Applying an ice pack to the incision site (C) is not appropriate for treating postpartum bleeding. Administering a lactated Ringer’s IV bolus (D) is the most urgent intervention to manage the ongoing bleeding and prevent further complications.