Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 min. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?
- A. Maternal hypoglycemia
- B. Chorioamnionitis
- C. Fetal anemia
- D. Maternal fever
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C (Fetal anemia)
Rationale: Fetal anemia can lead to decreased oxygen delivery to the fetus, causing fetal bradycardia. Anemia reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, resulting in the heart working harder to compensate for the decreased oxygen levels, leading to a lower fetal heart rate.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Maternal hypoglycemia - Unlikely to cause fetal bradycardia directly.
B: Chorioamnionitis - Typically presents with maternal fever and tachycardia, not fetal bradycardia.
D: Maternal fever - Can cause fetal tachycardia, not bradycardia.
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Select the 5 actions the nurse should take.
- A. Increase the flowrate of the maintenance IV fluid
- B. Have the charge nurse notify the provider
- C. Place the client in a Trendelenburg position.
- D. Exert upward pressure on the presenting part.
- E. Attempt to push the umbilical cord back into the cervix
- F. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via nonrebreather face mask
Correct Answer: B, C, D, E, F
Rationale: The correct actions (B, C, D, E, F) are based on managing a prolapsed umbilical cord during labor. B is crucial for timely intervention by involving the provider. C (Trendelenburg position) helps alleviate pressure on the cord. D (upward pressure) helps relieve compression on the cord. E aims to prevent cord compression. F (oxygen) supports fetal oxygenation. A is incorrect as increasing IV flowrate isn't a priority. G is not provided.
A nurse is teaching a client about advance directive. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. A living will is a document that includes my wishes about health care decisions.'
- B. My provider will make my health care decisions if I complete advance directives.'
- C. Advance directives outline who inherits my material possessions in the event of my death.'
- D. My partner needs to be present as a witness when I sign a living will.'
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it accurately defines a living will as a document stating the client's healthcare wishes. This shows understanding of an advance directive's purpose. Option B is incorrect because advance directives empower the client, not the provider, to make healthcare decisions. Option C is incorrect as advance directives focus on healthcare, not material possessions. Option D is incorrect as witnesses don't need to be partners, just competent adults.
A hospice nurse is visiting with the son of a client who has terminal cancer. The son reports sleeping very little during the past week due to caring for his mother. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. You should consider taking a sleeping pill before bed each night.'
- B. It is always difficult caring for someone who is terminally ill.'
- C. I am sure you're doing a great job taking care of your mother.'
- D. I can give you information about respite care if you are interested.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct response is D: "I can give you information about respite care if you are interested." This is the best response because it addresses the son's lack of sleep, which is a common issue for family caregivers. Offering information about respite care can provide the son with the opportunity to take a break and get some rest while ensuring his mother's needs are still met. It shows empathy and support for his situation.
Choice A is incorrect because suggesting a sleeping pill does not address the underlying issue of caregiver stress and may not be the best solution. Choice B is incorrect as it is a general statement and does not offer any practical help or support. Choice C, while supportive, does not provide a solution to the son's lack of sleep.
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for haloperidol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Shuffling gait
- D. Sedation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shuffling gait. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication known to cause extrapyramidal side effects like shuffling gait, which can indicate a serious movement disorder called tardive dyskinesia. Reporting this symptom promptly to the provider is crucial for early intervention. Weight gain (A) and dry mouth (B) are common side effects of many medications, including haloperidol, but they are not considered urgent to report. Sedation (D) is a common side effect of haloperidol, but it is not typically a sign of a serious adverse reaction requiring immediate attention.
A nurse is preparing to admit a 6-year-old with varicella to the pediatric unit. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Assign the child to a negative air pressure room.
- B. Administer aspirin to the child for fever.
- C. Use droplet precautions when caring for the child
- D. Assess the child for Koplik spots
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Assign the child to a negative air pressure room.
Rationale:
1. Varicella is highly contagious through airborne transmission.
2. Negative air pressure rooms help prevent the spread of infectious particles.
3. Isolation precautions are essential to protect other patients and healthcare workers.
4. Placing the child in a negative air pressure room minimizes the risk of transmission.
Summary of other choices:
B: Administering aspirin can lead to Reye's syndrome in children with varicella.
C: Droplet precautions are used for diseases like influenza, not varicella.
D: Koplik spots are associated with measles, not varicella.