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A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an epidural for pain control. Which of the following clinical ... effect of epidural anesthesia?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Hypertensi on
- C. Pruritus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Epidural anesthesia can result in some common side effects, one of which is pruritus (itching). Pruritus is a known side effect of the local anesthetics used in epidural anesthesia and is due to their effects on specialized receptors in the nervous system. Patients may experience itching, especially in the face, neck, and upper chest areas. Polyuria (increased urine output), hypertension (high blood pressure), and dry mouth are not typically associated side effects of epidural anesthesia.
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The nurse is teaching a client about signs of preterm labor. Which symptom should be reported immediately?
- A. Increased fetal movements.
- B. Lower back pain and cramping.
- C. Mild swelling of the feet.
- D. Occasional Braxton Hicks contractions.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lower back pain and cramping may indicate preterm labor and should be reported promptly.
The physician has determined the need for forceps. The nurse should explain to the patient that the need for forceps is indicated because
- A. Premature placental separation (also used for prolapsed cord and nonreasoning fetal HR)
- B. Her support person is exhausted
- C. To shorten the first stage of labor
- D. To prevent fetal distress
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Forceps delivery is indicated in situations where there is fetal distress due to premature placental separation or nonreassuring fetal heart rate. Forceps are used to facilitate a quicker delivery and reduce the risk to the baby during such emergency situations. Forces are also used in cases of fetal distress due to a prolapsed cord where a quick delivery is necessary to relieve pressure on the umbilical cord.
The nurse is monitoring a client with premature rupture of membranes at 37 weeks. Which prescription should the nurse question?
- A. Monitor fetal heart rate continuously.
- B. Monitor maternal vital signs frequently.
- C. Perform a vaginal examination every shift.
- D. Administer an antibiotic as prescribed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vaginal exams are minimized to reduce the risk of infection in clients with premature rupture of membranes.
The nurse is monitoring a client with severe preeclampsia. What assessment finding indicates worsening condition?
- A. Proteinuria of +1.
- B. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute.
- C. New-onset confusion and restlessness.
- D. Urine output of 40 mL/hr.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: New-onset confusion and restlessness may indicate cerebral edema or impending eclampsia.
Platypelloid pelvis
- A. Places the client as risk for dystocia
- B. Has an increased probability of cesarean section
- C. Has a flat shape that may impede fetal descent
- D. A Gynecoid pelvis is roomy and ideal for vaginal birth. An Anthropoid pelvis has an oval shape, and an android pelvis is heart shape.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A platypelloid pelvis is characterized by a flat shape with a shortened anteroposterior diameter, which can impede fetal descent during labor. This pelvic type is associated with an increased risk of dystocia, which is difficulty in childbirth due to inadequate progress of labor. The flat shape of the pelvis may lead to improper positioning of the baby, making it challenging for the fetus to navigate through the birth canal. This can result in prolonged labor, increased risk of birth injuries, and potential complications for both the mother and the baby. In some cases, it may necessitate interventions such as labor induction or cesarean delivery to ensure a safe outcome for the mother and the baby.