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A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following an endoscopy with moderate (conscious) sedation. Which of the following assessment findings is the nurse's priority?
- A. Oxygen saturation
- B. Warm extremities
- C. Temperature
- D. Level of pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxygen saturation. Ensuring adequate oxygen saturation is the nurse's priority because the client received moderate sedation, which can depress the respiratory drive. Monitoring oxygen saturation helps to detect any signs of respiratory distress early on. Warm extremities (B) and temperature (C) are important but not the priority in this situation. Pain management (D) is important but not as critical as ensuring adequate oxygenation.
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A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Which of the following findings indicate potential improvement?
- A. Hgb 8.4 g/dL (12 to 18 g/dL)
- B. Hct 42% (37% to 47%)
- C. WBC count 9
- D. Potassium 4.3 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium 4.3 mEq/L (3.5 to 5 mEq/L). In heart failure exacerbation, potassium levels can be affected due to medications or fluid shifts. A potassium level within the normal range indicates electrolyte balance, which is crucial for cardiac function. Hemoglobin (Choice A) and hematocrit (Choice B) are indicators of oxygen-carrying capacity and volume status, not directly related to heart failure improvement. White blood cell count (Choice C) is not specific to heart failure exacerbation. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it reflects a positive change in electrolyte balance, essential for cardiac function.
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who reports vaginal dryness and itching. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. These discomforts should decrease with time.'
- B. You should avoid intercourse to prevent injury to your vagina.'
- C. Women your age experience thickening of the vaginal tissue.'
- D. Your symptoms are likely due to decreasing estrogen levels.'
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Your symptoms are likely due to decreasing estrogen levels." This response is correct because vaginal dryness and itching are common symptoms of vaginal atrophy, which is often caused by decreased estrogen levels in older adult women. The nurse's acknowledgment and explanation of this physiological change can help the client understand the root cause of her symptoms and guide further discussion on appropriate treatment options, such as hormone therapy or vaginal moisturizers.
Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses the client's discomfort without addressing the underlying cause. Choice B is incorrect as it provides potentially harmful advice without addressing the issue. Choice C is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the condition of vaginal tissue in older women.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 3 hours postoperative following a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent venous thromboembolism?
- A. Encourage the client to perform circumduction of the foot.
- B. Keep the client's knees in a flexed position while they lie in bed.
- C. Massage the client's legs every 4 hours while they are awake.
- D. Limit the client's fluid intake to 2,000 mL daily.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Encourage the client to perform circumduction of the foot.
Rationale:
1. Circumduction of the foot promotes blood flow in the lower extremity, preventing stasis and reducing the risk of venous thromboembolism.
2. This action helps in maintaining muscle tone and preventing blood clots in the postoperative period.
3. Encouraging mobility also prevents complications like deep vein thrombosis.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B. Keeping the client's knees in a flexed position may restrict blood flow and increase the risk of thromboembolism.
C. Massaging the client's legs can dislodge blood clots and lead to embolism.
D. Limiting fluid intake can increase the risk of dehydration and thickening of blood, which can contribute to thrombus formation.
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hyperalbuminemia
- B. Proteinuria
- C. Decreased serum lipid levels
- D. Decreased coagulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Proteinuria. In nephrotic syndrome, there is increased permeability of the glomerular filtration membrane, leading to excessive loss of proteins in the urine, specifically albumin. This results in proteinuria. Choice A, hyperalbuminemia, is incorrect as nephrotic syndrome actually causes hypoalbuminemia due to protein loss. Choice C, decreased serum lipid levels, is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome causes hyperlipidemia due to increased hepatic synthesis of lipoproteins. Choice D, decreased coagulation, is incorrect as nephrotic syndrome is associated with hypercoagulability due to loss of anticoagulant proteins in the urine.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving morphine through a PCA device. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Teach the client how to self-medicate using the PCA device.
- B. Encourage family members to press the PCA button for the client.
- C. Monitor the client's respiratory status every 4 hr.
- D. Administer an oral opioid for breakthrough pain.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Teach the client how to self-medicate using the PCA device. This is important because it empowers the client to control their pain management while ensuring safety. Teaching the client how to use the PCA device helps promote autonomy and ensures that the client is receiving the appropriate dose of medication as prescribed. Encouraging family members to press the button (B) may lead to inappropriate dosing and compromise the client's safety. Monitoring respiratory status (C) is important but should be done more frequently, such as every hour, as respiratory depression can occur with morphine use. Administering an oral opioid for breakthrough pain (D) may not be necessary if the client is able to self-medicate effectively with the PCA device.