Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative. Which of the following nursing interventions reduce the risk of thrombus development? Select all.
- A. Instruct the client not to use the Valsalva maneuver
- B. Apply elastic stockings
- C. Review lab values for total protein level
- D. Place pillows under the client's knees & lower extremities
- E. Assist the client to change position often
Correct Answer: B, E
Rationale: The correct answers are B and E. Applying elastic stockings helps promote circulation and prevent stasis, reducing the risk of thrombus formation. Assisting the client to change position often prevents prolonged immobility, which can lead to blood pooling and clot formation. Choice A is incorrect because the Valsalva maneuver can increase intra-abdominal pressure, potentially leading to venous stasis and thrombus formation. Choice C is irrelevant to thrombus prevention. Placing pillows under the client's knees and lower extremities (choice D) may promote comfort but does not directly reduce thrombus risk.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse in an outpatient surgical center is admitting a client for a laparoscopic procedure. The client has a prescription for preoperative diazepam (Valium). Prior to administering the medication, which of the following actions is the highest priority?
- A. Teaching the client about the purpose of the medication
- B. Administering the medication to the client at the prescribed time
- C. Identifying the client's medication allergies
- D. Documenting the client's anxiety level
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The highest priority action before administering any medication is to identify the client's medication allergies to prevent potential adverse reactions. Administering diazepam without knowing the client's allergies could lead to serious complications. Teaching the client about the medication's purpose is important but not as critical as ensuring the client does not have allergies. Administering the medication at the prescribed time is important but comes after ensuring safety. Documenting anxiety level is relevant but not as urgent as identifying allergies.
A nurse is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 minutes. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?
Correct Answer: 83
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, we can use the formula: Drip rate = (Volume to be infused in gtt) / Time in minutes. In this case, the volume to be infused is 250 mL, and the time is 30 minutes. Convert 250 mL to drops: 250 mL x 10 gtt/mL = 2500 gtt. Now, divide 2500 gtt by 30 minutes to get 83.33 gtt/min. Since we can't administer a fraction of a drop, we round down to the nearest whole number, which is 83 gtt/min. This rate ensures the 0.9% NaCl solution is administered accurately over the specified time. Other choices are incorrect because they do not result from the correct calculation based on the given information.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postop following a total knee arthroplasty. The client states his pain level is a 10 on a scale of 0-10. After reviewing the client's medication administration record, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
- A. Meperidine (Demerol) 75 mg IM
- B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
- C. Morphine 2 mg IV
- D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Morphine 2 mg IV. Postoperative pain management is crucial for patient comfort and recovery. IV morphine is a potent opioid analgesic that provides quick and effective pain relief. The IV route allows for rapid onset of action, making it suitable for severe pain like in this case. Meperidine (choice A) is not recommended due to its toxic metabolite accumulation risk. Fentanyl patch (choice B) has a delayed onset and is not ideal for immediate pain relief. Oxycodone PO (choice D) is a less potent oral option compared to IV morphine for severe pain.
A nurse educator is teaching a module on pharmacokinetics to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the 1st-pass effect?
- A. Some meds block normal receptor activity regulated by endogenous compounds or receptor activity caused by other meds.
- B. Some meds may have to be administered by a nonenteral route to avoid inactivation as they travel through the liver.
- C. Some meds leave the body more slowly & therefore have a greater risk of accumulation & toxicity.
- D. Some meds have a wide safety margin, so there is no need for routine serum medication level monitoring.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
1. The 1st-pass effect refers to the metabolism of a drug in the liver before it reaches systemic circulation.
2. Medications administered orally undergo first-pass metabolism in the liver, leading to potential inactivation.
3. Administering such meds through nonenteral routes (e.g., intravenous) bypasses the liver, avoiding inactivation.
4. Choice A discusses receptor activity, not related to the first-pass effect.
5. Choice C refers to drug elimination rate, not specific to the first-pass effect.
6. Choice D discusses safety margin and monitoring, not directly related to drug metabolism.
A nurse who is admitting a client who has a fractured femur obtains a blood pressure reading of 140/94 mmHg. The client denies any history of hypertension. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Request a prescription for an antihypertensive medication
- B. Ask the client if she is having pain
- C. Request a prescription for an anti-anxiety medication
- D. Return in 30 minutes to recheck the client's BP
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a client with a fractured femur presents with an elevated blood pressure reading, it is important for the nurse to first assess if the client is in pain. Pain can cause an increase in blood pressure due to stress and sympathetic nervous system activation. Addressing pain management is crucial to providing holistic care and may help lower the blood pressure without the need for antihypertensive medications. Requesting an antihypertensive medication (choice A) without addressing the potential pain issue would not be appropriate at this time. Similarly, requesting an anti-anxiety medication (choice C) without further assessment would not address the underlying cause of the elevated blood pressure. Returning in 30 minutes to recheck the client's BP (choice D) is not as proactive as addressing the potential pain issue immediately.