Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a 0.9% sodium chloride via IV infusion. The client has become dyspneic with a blood pressure of 140/100 mm Hg, a fluid intake of 960 mL, and an output of 300 mL in the past 12 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Lower the head of the bed to semi-Fowler's.
- B. Administer prescribed corticosteroids.
- C. Slow infusion rate and contact the provider.
- D. Change infusion to lactated Ringer's and maintain rate.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Slow infusion rate and contact the provider.
Rationale: The client is showing signs of fluid volume overload with dyspnea, elevated blood pressure, and a significant fluid intake-output discrepancy. Slowing the infusion rate will help reduce fluid intake and potentially prevent worsening of the overload. Contacting the provider is crucial for further assessment and possible adjustment of the treatment plan.
Summary:
A: Lowering the head of the bed may help with respiratory distress but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload.
B: Administering corticosteroids is not indicated for fluid overload and may worsen the situation.
D: Changing to lactated Ringer's does not address the immediate need to slow down the infusion rate and seek provider guidance.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has diabetes mellitus about the self-administration of insulin.The client has prescriptions for regular and NPH insulins. Which
of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will draw up the regular insulin into the syringe first.
- B. I will shake the NPH vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin.
- C. I will store prefilled syringes in the refrigerator with the needle pointed downward.
- D. I will insert the needle at a 15-degree angle.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A: I will draw up the regular insulin into the syringe first.
Rationale: Drawing up regular insulin first is crucial for preventing contamination between the two insulins. Regular insulin is a clear solution and should be drawn up first to prevent any cloudiness or contamination from the NPH insulin, which is a cloudy suspension. Drawing up regular insulin first ensures accuracy in dosing and prevents mixing of the two insulins.
Incorrect Choices:
B: Shaking the NPH vial vigorously before drawing up the insulin is incorrect as it can cause bubbles and affect the accuracy of the dose.
C: Storing prefilled syringes in the refrigerator with the needle pointed downward is incorrect as it can lead to leakage or contamination.
D: Inserting the needle at a 15-degree angle is incorrect as insulin injections should be administered at a 90-degree angle for proper absorption.
A nurse is monitoring a client who has a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of Cushing's triad?
- A. Increase in blood pressure from 130/80 mm Hg to 180/100 mm Hg
- B. Decrease in heart rate to 120 bpm
- C. Rapid
- D. shallow respirations
- E. Hypotension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because Cushing's triad consists of hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations. In a client with a traumatic brain injury, increased intracranial pressure can lead to Cushing's triad due to brainstem compression. Option A reflects an increase in blood pressure, which is a key component of Cushing's triad. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the expected findings of Cushing's triad. Choice B indicates a decrease in heart rate, which is contrary to the bradycardia seen in Cushing's triad. Choice C mentions rapid respirations, whereas irregular or shallow respirations are more characteristic. Choice E mentions hypotension, which is not part of Cushing's triad. Therefore, option A is the correct choice as it aligns with the manifestation of hypertension in Cushing's triad.
A nurse is caring for a client who has acute angina. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Measure blood pressure.
- B. Administer aspirin.
- C. Administer nitroglycerin.
- D. Initiate IV access.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer aspirin. Administering aspirin is the priority action for a client with acute angina as it helps in reducing platelet aggregation and improving blood flow to the heart. This action can potentially prevent further clot formation and decrease the risk of a heart attack. It is essential to address the acute symptoms first before proceeding with other interventions. Measuring blood pressure (A), administering nitroglycerin (C), and initiating IV access (D) are important actions but administering aspirin takes precedence in this scenario to address the acute angina symptoms promptly.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply)
- A. Anticipate client to be prepped for cardiac catheterization
- B. Assist with a continuous heparin infusion
- C. Encourage the client to ambulate
- D. Anticipate an increase in dosage of metoprolol
- E. Obtain a prescription for client to be NPO
- F. Request a prescription for an antibiotic
Correct Answer: A, B, D,E
Rationale: The correct actions for the nurse to take are A, B, D, and E. A - anticipating client prep for cardiac catheterization is important for timely intervention. B - assisting with a continuous heparin infusion helps prevent blood clot formation during the procedure. D - anticipating an increase in metoprolol dosage is necessary to manage cardiac workload during the procedure. E - obtaining a prescription for NPO status is crucial to prevent complications during the procedure. Choices C (encouraging ambulation) and F (requesting an antibiotic prescription) are not directly related to preparing for cardiac catheterization and may not be necessary in this context.
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who is receiving treatment for genital herpes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates effectiveness of the teaching?
- A. I should apply antibiotic ointment to the lesions.'
- B. I should use natural skin condoms during sexual intercourse.'
- C. I should expect my lesions to resolve in 6 weeks.'
- D. I should expect to take my medication for 3 weeks.'
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I should expect my lesions to resolve in 6 weeks." This indicates effectiveness of teaching because it shows the client understands the natural course of genital herpes and the expected timeline for resolution. Choice A is incorrect because antibiotic ointment is not recommended for herpes. Choice B is incorrect because natural skin condoms do not provide adequate protection against herpes. Choice D is incorrect because treatment duration may vary and is not always 3 weeks.