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A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving enteral nutrition through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding
- B. Administer the feeding using a large-bore syringe
- C. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 15 degrees
- D. Replace the feeding bag every 24 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to flush the tube with 30 mL of sterile water before each feeding. This helps maintain tube patency and prevents clogs. Choice B is incorrect because enteral feedings should be administered using a gravity drip method or a pump, not through a large-bore syringe. Choice C is incorrect because the head of the bed should be elevated to at least 30 degrees to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D is incorrect because the feeding bag should be replaced every 24 hours to prevent bacterial contamination.
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A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a manifestation of pulmonary congestion?
- A. Frothy, pink sputum
- B. Jugular vein distention
- C. Weight gain
- D. Bradypnea
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Frothy, pink sputum is a classic sign of pulmonary congestion in left-sided heart failure. This occurs due to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, leading to the coughing up of frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Jugular vein distention (choice B) is more indicative of right-sided heart failure, where fluid backs up into the systemic circulation. Weight gain (choice C) may occur due to fluid retention, but it is not a direct manifestation of pulmonary congestion. Bradypnea (choice D) refers to abnormally slow breathing and is not specifically associated with pulmonary congestion.
A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings and is experiencing dumping syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer a refrigerated feeding.
- B. Increase the amount of water used to flush the tubing.
- C. Decrease the rate of the client's feedings.
- D. Instruct the client to move onto their right side.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dumping syndrome is a condition that occurs when food moves too quickly from the stomach into the small intestine. Symptoms can include abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and sweating. To manage dumping syndrome in a client receiving enteral tube feedings, the nurse should decrease the rate of the feedings. This intervention helps slow down the movement of food through the gastrointestinal tract, reducing the symptoms. Administering a refrigerated feeding (choice A) or increasing the amount of water used to flush the tubing (choice B) are not appropriate actions for addressing dumping syndrome. Instructing the client to move onto their right side (choice D) is not a relevant intervention for managing dumping syndrome in this scenario.
A client requests the creation of a living will. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Schedule a meeting between the hospital ethics committee and the client
- B. Evaluate the client's understanding of life-sustaining measures
- C. Determine the client's preferences about post-mortem care
- D. Request a conference with the client's family
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client requests the creation of a living will is to evaluate the client's understanding of life-sustaining measures. This step is crucial to ensure that the client is well-informed about their options before making decisions regarding their future care. Scheduling a meeting with the hospital ethics committee (choice A) may not be necessary at this stage and could overwhelm the client. Determining the client's preferences about post-mortem care (choice C) is not directly related to creating a living will. Requesting a conference with the client's family (choice D) may be important later but is not the initial step in this situation.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. INR 2.0
- B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
- C. aPTT 60 seconds
- D. WBC count 8,000/mm3
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.
A nurse is caring for a client who has received a new diagnosis of terminal cancer. The client tells the nurse, 'I just want to live long enough to see my child graduate.' The nurse should identify that the client is in which of the following stages of grief?
- A. Denial
- B. Bargaining
- C. Acceptance
- D. Anger
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client expressing a desire to live long enough to see their child graduate is an example of bargaining, which is a stage of grief where individuals attempt to negotiate for more time or different outcomes. Denial refers to refusing to accept the reality of the situation, acceptance involves coming to terms with the diagnosis, and anger is feeling frustrated and upset about the situation. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Bargaining.'