A nurse is caring for a client who is taking clopidogrel to prevent stent restenosis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions?
- A. Hyperuricemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Lymphocytopenia
- D. Thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Thrombocytopenia. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. Thrombocytopenia is a decrease in platelet count, which can lead to bleeding issues. Monitoring for thrombocytopenia is essential as it can be a potential adverse reaction of clopidogrel.
A: Hyperuricemia is not typically associated with clopidogrel.
B: Hyponatremia is not a common adverse reaction of clopidogrel.
C: Lymphocytopenia is not a common side effect of clopidogrel.
In summary, the nurse should monitor for thrombocytopenia as a potential adverse reaction when caring for a client taking clopidogrel.
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A 4-year-old child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia is receiving high-dose methotrexate during interim maintenance. He receives ondansetron and арретitant during his stay, which control his nausea and vomiting well. These medications work by inhibiting signaling in which part of the brain?
- A. Vestibular system
- B. Cerebral cortex
- C. Hypothalamus
- D. Vomiting center
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: I apologize, but it seems like the correct answer (E) is missing from the choices provided in the question. If you could kindly provide the correct answer, I would be more than happy to provide a detailed explanation for why that answer is correct and summarize why the other choices are incorrect.
A patient receiving blood complains of dyspnea. The nurse auscultates the patient's lungs and finds crackles that were not present before the start of the transfusion. Which type of reaction should the nurse suspect?
- A. Urticarial
- B. Hemolytic
- C. Anaphylactic
- D. Circulatory overload
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Circulatory overload. Dyspnea and crackles post-transfusion indicate fluid overload, not an immune response. Step 1: Rule out urticarial (itching/rash) and anaphylactic (rapid onset, hypotension) reactions due to the absence of these symptoms. Step 2: Hemolytic reactions involve destruction of red blood cells, leading to hemoglobinuria and shock. Step 3: Circulatory overload results from an excessive volume of blood given, leading to pulmonary edema and crackles. In this case, the symptoms align with circulatory overload, making it the most likely reaction.
Best tit modality in CML is:
- A. hydroxyurea
- B. allogenic BMT
- C. interferon alpha
- D. radiotherapy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best treatment modality for Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) is allogenic Bone Marrow Transplant (BMT) due to its potential for cure by replacing abnormal cells with healthy donor cells. Hydroxyurea only controls symptoms, interferon alpha has limited efficacy, and radiotherapy is not a standard treatment for CML. BMT offers a curative potential by replacing cancerous cells with healthy donor cells, making it the most effective option for treating CML.
A nurse is caring for a client who is taking clopidogrel to prevent stent restenosis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions?
- A. Hyperuricemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Lymphocytopenia
- D. Thrombocytopenia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Thrombocytopenia. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Therefore, monitoring for thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelet count, is crucial to assess the drug's effectiveness and potential side effects. Hyperuricemia (A) is not directly associated with clopidogrel use. Hyponatremia (B) is not a common adverse reaction of clopidogrel. Lymphocytopenia (C) is not typically linked to clopidogrel and is more commonly seen with other medications or conditions.
A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin taking aspirin to reduce the risk of a cardiovascular event. The nurse should identify that the drug inhibits platelet aggregation by which of the following mechanisms?
- A. Activating thromboxane A2
- B. Blocking adenosine diphosphate receptor agonists
- C. Suppressing specific clotting factors
- D. Inhibiting cyclooxygenase action in platelets
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inhibiting cyclooxygenase action in platelets. Aspirin inhibits cyclooxygenase, specifically COX-1, in platelets, leading to the inhibition of thromboxane A2 production. Thromboxane A2 is a potent platelet aggregator. By inhibiting its production, aspirin reduces platelet aggregation, thus reducing the risk of cardiovascular events.
A: Activating thromboxane A2 - This is incorrect because aspirin actually inhibits the production of thromboxane A2.
B: Blocking adenosine diphosphate receptor agonists - This is incorrect because aspirin primarily works through the inhibition of cyclooxygenase, not adenosine diphosphate receptors.
C: Suppressing specific clotting factors - This is incorrect because aspirin's primary mechanism of action is through platelet inhibition, not through suppressing clotting factors.