A nurse is caring for a client who is taking filgrastim to treat neutropenia. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Dusky nail beds
- B. Petechiae
- C. Enlarged spleen
- D. Swollen calf
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct:
1. Filgrastim stimulates the production of neutrophils.
2. An enlarged spleen can indicate an increase in neutrophils.
3. Therefore, assessing the client for an enlarged spleen is crucial to monitor the drug's effectiveness and potential adverse effects.
Summary of why other choices are incorrect:
A: Dusky nail beds - Not directly related to filgrastim or neutropenia.
B: Petechiae - Typically associated with low platelet count, not neutrophil increase.
D: Swollen calf - Unlikely to be a direct adverse effect of filgrastim for neutropenia.
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Which of the following is false regarding heparin?
- A. Subcutaneous injection of heparin is avoided because of hematomas formation.
- B. Heparin is usually stored in the mast cells.
- C. Heparin binds to plasma anti thrombin III and inhibits activated thrombin.
- D. Protamine sulfate can be used to counteract heparin overdose.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Subcutaneous injection of heparin is avoided because it can lead to hematomas due to its anticoagulant properties. Heparin is not stored in mast cells (B), but it is synthesized in mast cells. Heparin binds to plasma antithrombin III and inhibits activated thrombin (C). Protamine sulfate can be used to counteract heparin overdose by binding to heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant effects (D). Therefore, the statement that subcutaneous injection of heparin is avoided due to hematoma formation is the false statement among the options provided.
Which of the following is associated with normocytic normochromic anaemia?
- A. Iron deficiency
- B. Primaquine
- C. Pregnancy
- D. Sickle cell disease
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Normocytic normochromic anemia is characterized by normal-sized red blood cells with normal hemoglobin content. Pregnancy is associated with this type of anemia due to increased blood volume and iron demands. Iron deficiency anemia (choice A) is typically microcytic hypochromic. Primaquine (choice B) is not known to cause normocytic normochromic anemia. Sickle cell disease (choice D) results in hemolytic anemia with abnormal red blood cell morphology. Thus, the correct answer is C as it aligns with the characteristics of normocytic normochromic anemia.
While taking a client history, which factor(s) that place the client at risk for a hematologic health problem will the nurse document? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Family history of military excellence
- B. Diet low in iron and protein
- C. Excessive alcohol consumption
- D. Family history of allergies
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Excessive alcohol consumption. Excessive alcohol intake can lead to hematologic health problems such as anemia and abnormal blood clotting. Alcohol interferes with the production of red blood cells and impairs the function of platelets. Therefore, documenting excessive alcohol consumption is crucial in assessing a client's risk for hematologic issues.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
A: Family history of military excellence - This choice is irrelevant to hematologic health problems and does not pose a risk factor.
B: Diet low in iron and protein - While a poor diet can contribute to hematologic issues, this specific choice does not directly indicate a risk factor for hematologic problems.
D: Family history of allergies - Allergies are not directly related to hematologic health problems, so this choice is not relevant in this context.
A 6-year-old boy is noted to have worsening visual acuity on serial eye exams. Recent MRI of his brain and orbits reveals an optic chiasm mass, most consistent with an optic pathway glioma. Upon further examination, the physician notes axillary freckling and numerous “spots†on the patient's skin. This patient most likely has a which of the following genetic disorders?
- A. Neurofibromatosis type-1 (NF1)
- B. Li Fraumeni syndrome
- C. Tuberous sclerosis
- D. Cystic Fibrosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neurofibromatosis type-1 (NF1). This is because the patient presents with optic pathway glioma, axillary freckling, and numerous skin spots, which are characteristic features of NF1. NF1 is caused by a mutation in the NF1 gene on chromosome 17, leading to the development of various tumors. Li Fraumeni syndrome is associated with multiple cancers but not specifically with optic pathway glioma or skin findings. Tuberous sclerosis presents with facial angiofibromas, cortical tubers, and subependymal nodules, not optic pathway glioma. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder affecting the lungs and digestive system, not associated with the symptoms described in the patient.
A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin taking aspirin to reduce the risk of a cardiovascular event. The nurse should identify that the drug inhibits platelet aggregation by which of the following mechanisms?
- A. Activating thromboxane A2
- B. Blocking adenosine diphosphate receptor agonists
- C. Suppressing specific clotting factors
- D. Inhibiting cyclooxygenase action in platelets
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Inhibiting cyclooxygenase action in platelets. Aspirin inhibits cyclooxygenase, specifically COX-1, in platelets, leading to the inhibition of thromboxane A2 production. Thromboxane A2 is a potent platelet aggregator. By inhibiting its production, aspirin reduces platelet aggregation, thus reducing the risk of cardiovascular events.
A: Activating thromboxane A2 - This is incorrect because aspirin actually inhibits the production of thromboxane A2.
B: Blocking adenosine diphosphate receptor agonists - This is incorrect because aspirin primarily works through the inhibition of cyclooxygenase, not adenosine diphosphate receptors.
C: Suppressing specific clotting factors - This is incorrect because aspirin's primary mechanism of action is through platelet inhibition, not through suppressing clotting factors.