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A nurse is caring for a client who reports a new onset of severe chest pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to determine if the client is experiencing a myocardial infarction?
- A. Perform a 12-lead ECG
- B. Administer nitroglycerin
- C. Place the client in a prone position
- D. Assess the client's blood pressure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform a 12-lead ECG. This is because an ECG is the most reliable and direct way to assess for myocardial infarction by identifying characteristic changes in the heart's electrical activity. Nitroglycerin (B) is used to relieve chest pain but should not be administered before confirming the diagnosis. Placing the client in a prone position (C) is not appropriate for assessing chest pain. Assessing blood pressure (D) is important but not the initial priority when suspecting myocardial infarction.
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A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about gynecological examination. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. The urethral orifice is assessed by separating the labia minora.
- B. The cervix should be palpated for size.
- C. The vagina should be inspected without a speculum.
- D. The clitoris should be massaged during examination.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The urethral orifice is located between the clitoris and vaginal opening, so separating the labia minora is necessary to assess it. This step ensures proper assessment of the urinary system and helps detect any abnormalities.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
B: Palpating the cervix for size is not a standard part of a gynecological examination; it may cause discomfort and is unnecessary unless indicated for specific medical reasons.
C: Inspecting the vagina without a speculum is not recommended as it may not provide a clear view of the vaginal walls and cervix, potentially missing important findings.
D: Massaging the clitoris is not a part of a gynecological examination and is inappropriate; it may be uncomfortable for the patient and is not relevant to the assessment.
A client is planning to perform nasotracheal suction for a client who has COPD and an artificial airway. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Preoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen for up to 3 min.
- B. Perform suctioning for no longer than 30 seconds.
- C. Apply suction while inserting the catheter.
- D. Limit oxygen therapy to 50% prior to suctioning.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preoxygenate the client with 100% oxygen for up to 3 min. This is essential to prevent hypoxemia during the suctioning procedure. Adequate preoxygenation helps to increase the oxygen reserves in the client's lungs, reducing the risk of oxygen desaturation during and after suctioning. This is particularly important for clients with COPD and an artificial airway, as they are already at risk for hypoxemia due to impaired lung function.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect:
B: Performing suctioning for no longer than 30 seconds is a general guideline, but it is not specific to clients with COPD and an artificial airway.
C: Applying suction while inserting the catheter is incorrect as this can cause trauma to the airway and increase the risk of infection.
D: Limiting oxygen therapy to 50% prior to suctioning is incorrect as it can lead to hypoxemia in clients with
A nurse is reviewing the EKG strip of a client who has prolonged vomiting. Which of the following abnormalities on the client's EKG should the nurse interpret as a sign of hypokalemia?
- A. Abnormally prominent U wave
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Flattened P wave
- D. Prolonged PR interval
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Abnormally prominent U wave. In hypokalemia, low potassium levels can lead to U wave prominence on an EKG. The U wave becomes more visible and prominent due to delayed repolarization of the Purkinje fibers. This is a classic EKG finding in hypokalemia. Tachycardia (choice B) is a non-specific finding and can be caused by various conditions. Flattened P wave (choice C) is seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. Prolonged PR interval (choice D) is more indicative of first-degree heart block or other conduction abnormalities, not specifically hypokalemia.
A nurse assesses a client in skeletal traction. What indicates infection at the pin sites?
- A. Pallor
- B. Fever
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. Infection at the pin sites in skeletal traction commonly presents with systemic signs like fever. Fever is a typical response to infection as the body tries to fight off the invading pathogens. Pallor, bradycardia, and elevated blood pressure are not specific indicators of infection at pin sites. Pallor may indicate poor perfusion, bradycardia is a slow heart rate which is not typically associated with infection, and elevated blood pressure can be a response to various stressors but not a specific sign of infection at pin sites. In summary, fever is the most reliable indicator of infection at pin sites due to its systemic nature.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a new prescription for furosemide. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss through increased urine output. This can lead to hypokalemia, which can be dangerous in a client with heart failure as it can worsen cardiac function and lead to arrhythmias. The nurse should monitor the client's potassium levels regularly to prevent this adverse effect.
Summary of other choices:
B: Hyperkalemia - Furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia.
C: Hypernatremia - Furosemide is a diuretic that can lead to sodium loss, not hypernatremia.
D: Hypertension - Furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension, so it is not an adverse effect of the medication in this scenario.