Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client with depression who has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). The client reports experiencing nausea. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. "You should stop taking the medication immediately."
- B. "Nausea is a common side effect and usually decreases over time."
- C. "Try taking the medication with food to reduce nausea."
- D. "I will inform the healthcare provider to change your medication."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Nausea is a common side effect of sertraline, and clients should be reassured that it usually decreases as their body adjusts to the medication."
Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Choice C is a good suggestion to reduce nausea by taking the medication with food but does not address the temporary nature of the side effect. Choice D is unnecessary at this point since nausea is a common side effect that may improve with time.
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The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?
- A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
- B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
- C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
- D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.
The wife of a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia visits 2 days after her husband's admission and states to the nurse, 'Why isn't he eating? He's still talking about his food being poisoned.' Which of the following appraisals by the LPN/LVN is most accurate?
- A. The wife's inquiry is reasonable.
- B. Education about her husband's medication is needed.
- C. Her expectations of her husband are realistic.
- D. An increase in the client's medication is needed.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The wife needs education about her husband's medication to understand how it affects his perceptions, including paranoid thoughts about food. Choice A is incorrect because the wife's inquiry reflects her lack of understanding of the situation rather than being reasonable. Choice C is incorrect as the husband's condition requires specialized care beyond what the wife might consider realistic. Choice D is incorrect as increasing medication should not be the immediate response; education and reassurance are key in this situation.
The nurse is performing intake interviews at a psychiatric clinic. A female client with a known history of drug abuse reports that she had a heart attack four years ago. Use of which substance abuse places the client at the highest risk for myocardial infarction?
- A. Benzodiazepines
- B. Marijuana
- C. Methamphetamine
- D. Alcohol
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Methamphetamine use is strongly associated with cardiovascular risks, including myocardial infarction, due to its stimulant effects on the heart. Benzodiazepines (Choice A) are not typically associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. Marijuana (Choice B) is not commonly linked to heart attacks, though it can have other health effects. Alcohol (Choice D) abuse can lead to cardiovascular issues, but methamphetamine has a more direct and potent impact on the heart, making it the highest risk factor in this scenario.
A young adult male with a history of substance abuse is admitted to the psychiatric unit for detoxification. He is agitated, sweating, and reports seeing bugs crawling on the walls. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Reassure the client that the bugs are not real.
- B. Administer the prescribed benzodiazepine.
- C. Place the client in a quiet, dark room.
- D. Encourage the client to express his feelings.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer the prescribed benzodiazepine. This intervention helps manage the client's agitation and hallucinations, which are common symptoms during detoxification from substances. Reassuring the client that the bugs are not real (Choice A) may not be effective in addressing the underlying causes of the hallucinations. Placing the client in a quiet, dark room (Choice C) may help reduce sensory stimulation but does not directly address the client's symptoms. Encouraging the client to express his feelings (Choice D) is important for therapeutic communication but may not be the priority when the client is experiencing severe agitation and hallucinations.
A female client with major depression is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). She reports experiencing increased energy but still feels sad and hopeless. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. ''These feelings are normal and will pass with time.''
- B. ''Increased energy can sometimes lead to increased risk for self-harm.''
- C. ''The medication needs more time to be effective.''
- D. ''Let's talk about the things that make you feel this way.''
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased energy without improvement in mood can increase the risk of self-harm in clients with depression. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this potential risk and closely monitor the client for any signs of self-harm. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the client's persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness as normal may invalidate her experiences. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine (Prozac) typically starts showing effectiveness within a few weeks, so further delay is concerning. Choice D is incorrect because while discussing the client's feelings is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the potential risk of self-harm associated with increased energy.