Nokea
A nurse is caring for a male client who has a new prescription for cyclosporine following a kidney transplant. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this therapy?
- A. BUN 24 mg/dL
- B. Blood glucose 95 mg/dL
- C. Platelets 250
- D. 000/mm³
- E. Hemoglobin 14 g/Dl
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: BUN 24 mg/dL. Cyclosporine, an immunosuppressant medication, can cause nephrotoxicity as an adverse effect. An elevated BUN level indicates impaired kidney function, which can be a consequence of cyclosporine therapy. Blood glucose level (choice B) and platelet count (choice C) are not typically affected by cyclosporine. Hemoglobin level (choice E) is not directly related to cyclosporine therapy. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant for signs of nephrotoxicity by monitoring the client's BUN level.
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A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication of a microvascular complication?
- A. Peripheral neuropathy
- B. Hypertension
- C. Retinopathy
- D. Stroke
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Retinopathy. In type 2 diabetes mellitus, microvascular complications involve damage to small blood vessels. Retinopathy specifically affects the blood vessels in the retina, leading to vision problems. Peripheral neuropathy (A) is a macrovascular complication affecting nerves. Hypertension (B) is a common comorbidity in diabetes but not a direct microvascular complication. Stroke (D) is a macrovascular complication involving larger blood vessels in the brain. Therefore, the presence of retinopathy is a clear indication of a microvascular complication in a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement to decrease the clients risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Wear a protective gown when suctioning the clients airway.
- B. Monitor for oral secretions every 2 hr.
- C. Provide oral care every 2 hr.
- D. Maintain the client in a supine position.
- E. Assess the client daily for readiness of extubation.
Correct Answer: B, C, E
Rationale: Correct Answer: B, C, E
Rationale:
- Monitoring for oral secretions every 2 hr helps prevent aspiration of secretions, reducing the risk of VAP.
- Providing oral care every 2 hr reduces the bacterial load in the mouth, decreasing the risk of VAP.
- Assessing the client daily for readiness of extubation allows for timely removal of the ventilator, reducing the duration of ventilation and lowering the risk of VAP.
Incorrect Choices:
- Wearing a protective gown when suctioning the client's airway does not directly decrease the risk of VAP.
- Maintaining the client in a supine position may increase the risk of aspiration and VAP.
A nurse is assessing a clients understanding of a surgical procedure prior to witnessing their signature on the informed consent form. The nurse determines that the client does not understand what the procedure will involve. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Proceed with obtaining the signature.
- B. Explain the procedure in detail.
- C. Contact the provider who will be performing the procedure.
- D. Have the client sign the form and address concerns later.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Contact the provider who will be performing the procedure. This is the best course of action because the provider is the most qualified individual to explain the procedure in detail and address any concerns the client may have. By involving the provider, the client can receive accurate and comprehensive information directly from the source. Proceeding with obtaining the signature (A) without ensuring the client's understanding can lead to potential legal and ethical issues. Explaining the procedure in detail (B) may not be sufficient if the client still has questions or concerns. Having the client sign the form and addressing concerns later (D) is not appropriate as it prioritizes paperwork over patient understanding and safety.
A nurse is caring for a client who has dumping syndrome following a gastric resection. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications of dumping syndrome?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Iron-deficiency anemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Iron-deficiency anemia. Dumping syndrome following a gastric resection can lead to rapid emptying of the stomach contents into the small intestine, causing malabsorption of nutrients, especially iron. Iron-deficiency anemia can develop due to inadequate iron absorption. Monitoring for anemia is crucial in these clients.
Hyperkalemia (A), hypoglycemia (B), and hypertension (D) are not typical complications of dumping syndrome. Hyperkalemia is high potassium levels, hypoglycemia is low blood sugar, and hypertension is high blood pressure, which are not directly associated with dumping syndrome.
A nurse is assessing a client who has an exacerbation of diverticular disease. In which of the following quadrants should the nurse anticipate the client to be experiencing abdominal pain?
- A. Right lower quadrant
- B. Left lower quadrant
- C. Upper left quadrant
- D. Mid-epigastric area
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Left lower quadrant. Diverticular disease commonly causes pain in the left lower quadrant due to inflammation or infection of the diverticula, small pouches that can develop in the colon wall. This area corresponds to the location of the descending and sigmoid colon, where most diverticula occur. Pain in the right lower quadrant (choice A) is more indicative of appendicitis. Upper left quadrant pain (choice C) is more likely related to conditions involving the spleen or stomach. Mid-epigastric pain (choice D) is typically associated with issues related to the stomach or pancreas.