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A nurse is caring for a patient who has allergic rhinitis. What intervention would be most likely to help the patient meet the goal of improved breathing pattern?
- A. Teach the patient to take deep breaths and cough frequently.
- B. Use antihistamines daily throughout the year.
- C. Teach the patient to seek medical attention at the first sign of an allergic reaction.
- D. Modify the environment to reduce the severity of allergic symptoms.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Allergic rhinitis, also known as hay fever, is a condition characterized by inflammation in the nasal passages triggered by allergens such as pollen, dust mites, or animal dander. Modifying the patient's environment to reduce exposure to these allergens can significantly help improve the breathing pattern in patients with allergic rhinitis. This can include measures such as using air purifiers, keeping indoor humidity levels low, avoiding exposure to pollen by keeping windows closed during peak seasons, and regularly cleaning bedding to reduce dust mites.
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A nurse is standing beside the patient’s bed. Nurse:How are you doing? Patient:I don’t feel good. Which element will the nurse identify as feedback?
- A. Nurse
- B. Patient
- C. How are you doing?
- D. I don’t feel good.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In communication, feedback is the response or message provided by the receiver to the sender. In this scenario, the nurse asks the patient, "How are you doing?" The patient's response, "I don't feel good," is the feedback. It is the patient's reaction and message returning to the nurse. The nurse, in this context, is the sender initiating the conversation, while the patient is the receiver providing the feedback in response to the nurse's inquiry. Therefore, the statement "I don't feel good" constitutes the feedback in this communication exchange.
The nurse is monitoring a patient with severe preeclampsia who is on IV magnesium sulfate. Which signs of magnesium toxicity should the nurse monitor for? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Cool, clammy skin
- B. Altered sensorium
- C. Pulse oximeter reading of 95%
- D. Respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The signs of magnesium toxicity that the nurse should monitor for in a patient with severe preeclampsia on IV magnesium sulfate include an altered sensorium (confusion, lethargy, slurred speech) and a respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths per minute. Altered sensorium is a common symptom of magnesium toxicity, reflecting the drug's central nervous system depressant effects. A decreased respiratory rate can indicate respiratory depression, a potentially serious complication of magnesium toxicity. Monitoring for these signs is crucial to promptly identifying and managing magnesium toxicity in patients on magnesium sulfate therapy. Signs such as cool, clammy skin and a pulse oximeter reading of 95% would not be indicative of magnesium toxicity.
The priority nursing intervention when admitting a pregnant patient who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy is to
- A. monitor uterine contractions.
- B. assess fetal heart rate and maternal vital signs.
- C. place clean disposable pads to collect any drainage.
- D. perform a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When admitting a pregnant patient who has experienced a bleeding episode in late pregnancy, the top priority nursing intervention is to assess fetal heart rate (FHR) and maternal vital signs. This assessment will help the nurse determine the extent of the blood loss and its impact on both the mother and the fetus. Monitoring uterine contractions is important as well, but not the priority in this situation. Placing clean disposable pads to collect any drainage is important for ongoing assessment and management but can be done after assessing the FHR and vital signs. Performing a venipuncture for hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is necessary for further evaluation but can be done after the initial assessment of FHR and vital signs. Checking the patient and fetal well-being is crucial in situations of bleeding in late pregnancy to ensure timely and appropriate intervention.
Which routine nursing assessment is contraindicated for a patient admitted with suspected placenta previa?
- A. Determining cervical dilation and effacement
- B. Monitoring FHR and maternal vital signs
- C. Observing vaginal bleeding or leakage of amniotic fluid
- D. Determining frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Vaginal examination of the cervix may result in perforation of the placenta and subsequent hemorrhage in a patient admitted with suspected placenta previa. It is important to avoid any unnecessary manipulation of the cervix to prevent complications. Assessing cervical dilation and effacement should be avoided until placenta previa is ruled out to prevent harm to the patient.
A patient confides to the nurse that he cannot engage in sexual activity. The patient is 27 years old and has no apparent history of chronic illness that would contribute to erectile dysfunction. What does the nurse know will be ordered for this patient to assess his sexual functioning?
- A. Sperm count
- B. Ejaculation capacity tests
- C. Engorgement tests
- D. Nocturnal penile tumescence tests
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Nocturnal penile tumescence tests are used to assess erectile dysfunction in men who are unable to engage in sexual activity. It measures the frequency and strength of erections that occur during sleep, which can provide valuable information about a man's erectile function and whether there may be underlying physiological causes for his inability to engage in sexual activity. This test can help determine if the patient's erectile dysfunction is due to physical or psychological factors. A sperm count, ejaculation capacity tests, and engorgement tests are not typically ordered to assess sexual functioning in this case.