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A nurse is caring for clients with electrolyte imbalances on a medical-surgical unit. Which clinical manifestations are correctly paired with the contributing electrolyte imbalance? (Select all that do not apply.)
- A. Hypokalemia Flaccid paralysis with respiratory depression
- B. Hyperphosphatemia Paresthesia with sensations of tingling and numbness
- C. . Hyponatremia Decreased level of consciousness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because hyperphosphatemia can lead to paresthesia with sensations of tingling and numbness due to its effect on nerve function.
A, hypokalemia causes muscle weakness but not flaccid paralysis with respiratory depression.
C, hyponatremia typically presents with symptoms such as confusion and seizures, not decreased level of consciousness.
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A nurse evaluates the following arterial blood gas values in a client: pH 7.48, PaO2 98 mm Hg, PaCO2 28 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which client condition should the nurse correlate with these results?
- A. Diarrhea and vomiting for 36 hours
- B. . Anxiety-induced hyperventilation
- C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
- D. Diabetic ketoacidosis and emphysema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anxiety-induced hyperventilation. The arterial blood gas values show a pH of 7.48 (alkalosis) with low PaCO2 (respiratory alkalosis), which is consistent with hyperventilation due to anxiety. HCO3 is within normal range, ruling out metabolic causes. A: Diarrhea and vomiting would lead to metabolic acidosis with low pH and decreased HCO3. C: COPD would typically present with respiratory acidosis (high PaCO2) and normal to high HCO3. D: Diabetic ketoacidosis and emphysema would show metabolic acidosis with low pH and low HCO3.
You are caring for a patient with a secondary diagnosis of hypermagnesemia. What assessment finding would be
most consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Kussmaul respirations
- C. Increased DTRs
- D. Shallow respirations
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Shallow respirations. Hypermagnesemia can lead to respiratory depression due to its inhibitory effect on the central nervous system. Shallow respirations are a common respiratory manifestation of hypermagnesemia. Hypertension (choice A) is not typically associated with hypermagnesemia. Kussmaul respirations (choice B) are deep, rapid breathing patterns seen in metabolic acidosis, not hypermagnesemia. Increased deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) (choice C) are more indicative of hypomagnesemia, as magnesium deficiency can lead to hyperexcitability of nerves and muscles, resulting in increased DTRs.
A nurse is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis and is at risk for an acid-base imbalance. For which manifestation of this acid-base imbalance should the nurse assess?
- A. Agitation
- B. Kussmaul respirations
- C. Seizures
- D. Positive Chvosteks sign
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Kussmaul respirations. In acute pancreatitis, metabolic acidosis can occur due to the release of pancreatic enzymes. Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths that help to blow off excess carbon dioxide in response to acidosis, aiming to correct the pH imbalance. Agitation (A) is a nonspecific symptom and not specific to acid-base imbalances. Seizures (C) are more commonly associated with electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia or hypocalcemia. Positive Chvostek's sign (D) is a clinical sign of hypocalcemia, not directly related to acid-base imbalances in acute pancreatitis.
A client with a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes needs immediate intervention. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
- A. Prepare to administer sodium polystyrene sulfate (Kayexalate) 15 g by mouth.
- B. Provide a heart-healthy, low-potassium diet.
- C. Prepare to administer dextrose 20% and 10 units of regular insulin IV push.
- D. Prepare the client for hemodialysis treatment.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client's high serum potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L can lead to serious cardiovascular complications like arrhythmias. The immediate priority is to lower potassium levels rapidly to prevent cardiac arrest. Administering dextrose 20% and regular insulin IV push helps shift potassium from extracellular to intracellular space, lowering serum levels quickly. Option A (Kayexalate) is not as rapid as insulin therapy. Option B (low-potassium diet) is not immediate. Option D (hemodialysis) is effective but not as quick as insulin therapy for urgent potassium reduction.
After teaching a client to increase dietary potassium intake, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary meal selection indicates the client correctly understands the teaching?
- A. Toasted English muffin with butter and blueberry jam, and tea with sugar
- B. Two scrambled eggs, a slice of white toast, and a half cup of strawberries
- C. Sausage, one slice of whole wheat toast, half cup of raisins, and a glass of milk
- D. Bowl of oatmeal with brown sugar, a half cup of sliced peaches, and coffee
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it includes foods high in potassium. Raisins, whole wheat toast, and milk are good sources of potassium. Sausage might contain some potassium as well.
A: This option lacks potassium-rich foods.
B: While strawberries have some potassium, the overall meal lacks a sufficient amount.
D: While oatmeal and peaches have potassium, coffee can actually inhibit potassium absorption.